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Financial Arbitrage
• Its an opportunity to buy an asset at a low price then immediately selling it on 
a different market for a higher price. 
• An investment practice that attempts to profit from inefficiencies in price by 
making transactions that offset each other 
• In economics, arbitrage is the practice of taking advantage of a price 
difference between two or more markets, the profit being the difference 
between the market prices.
Arbitrage is possible when one of three conditions is met: 
•The same asset does not trade at the same price in all markets. 
•An asset with a known price in the future does not today trade at its future 
price discounted at the risk-free interest rate . 
•Two assets with identical cash flows do not trade at the same price.
1) Example : 
• Assume on some given day at some point of time SBI is trading in NSE @2400 
& on BSE @ 2403. 
• Simultaneous buying of SBI Stock @2400 in NSE and selling it on BSE @ 2403. 
2) Example : 
• Assume SBI Future (lot size 125) for current month is trading at 2400 as 
against cash market of 2390. 
• Buy 125 SBI stock in cash market @ 2390 
• Sell one lot of SBI future @ 2400 
• Reverse the position on future settlement date. 
3) Example : 
• Buy Rice from Kakinada Hyderabad @ Rs 28per/ kg and sell it in Kashmir @ Rs 
40/kg. 
4) Example : 
• Buy Nifty future in SGX Nifty @ 7950 and sell in NSE @ 7960 
• Unwind both positions when the gap becomes narrow.
• Arbitrage has the effect of causing prices in different markets to 
converge. As a result of arbitrage, the currency exchange rates, the 
price of commodities, and the price of securities in different 
markets tend to converge. 
• Arbitrage tends to reduce price discrimination by encouraging 
people to buy an item where the price is low and resell it where 
the price is high.
Buyers credit Vs Working Capital 
Case : XYZ is a importer and it has imported a machinery from Germany for 
$100000/- The payment for this is due today. 
As it is a import of capital goods, company can avail buyers credit up to 3 years 
instead of paying the cost immediately. 
Lets assume company has taken buyers credit for 1 year. 
Working Capital Buyers credit 
Rate of Interest 14% 6M Libor + 100 
Forward Premium for 6 
2.50 
Months 
Today spot 60.44 
Forward premium in % 8.27% p.a. 
6 Month Libor 0.33% 
LOC Charges 2.1% 
Total Cost 14% 11.7% 
An arbitrage of 2.3%
FCNB (DL) Vs Working Capital 
XYZ is a domestic company with no foreign exchange exposure. It has a working 
capital limit of Rs 100crore. 
The Minimum debit balance at any time is Rs 45 crore. 
Company XYZ will convert this Rupee exposure to foreign currency exposure by 
availing fully hedged FCNB (DL) and will get a safe arbitrage. 
Working Capital FCNB (DL) 
Interest Rate 14% 6M Libor + 300 ** 
6 Months forward 
8.27% 
premium 
6 Months Libor 0.33% 
Other cost (Processing / 
cash spot etc) 
0.50% (assume) 
Total Cost 14% 12.1% 
Safe arbitrage of 1.90%
PCFC vs Rs EPC 
XYZ is an exporter and it regularly avails PCFC for execution of its export orders 
Q . Why XYZ is availing PCFC and not rupee Loan ? 
A. 1) To reduce cost 
2) To hedge its future receivables. 
PCFC Rs EPC 
Cost 6M Libor + 200 10% 
6 M Libor 0.33% 
Forward Premium for 6 
Months 
(-)8.27% 
Interest Subsidy (-)3% 
Total Cost 2.33% (-)1.27% 
** ##
Rupee-Dollar Swap 
XYZ is a exporter and it has taken a Rupee Term loan of Rs 60crore@13%. The receivables 
of XYZ co is in USD & liabilities are in Rupee. 
XYZ wants to convert its Rupee Term Loan to USD, reasons could be 
1.Asset Liability mismatch. 
2. Foreign Exchange conversion risk. 
3.Arbitrage Opportunity. 
XYZ will convert its Rupee loan to USD loan by dollarizing its exposure and in the process 
will receive a positive carry of lets assume 6%. 
Benefits: 
•Now the companies receivables are in USD and Payables are also in USD 
•Company has effectively reduced its cost from 13% to (13-6%) i.e.7%. 
Risks : 
• If INR depreciates than the available arbitrage will come down and on INR depreciating 
beyond cut off , company will loose notionally on locking their receivables at lower 
conversion rates. (opportunity loss). 
•Company cannot convert its assigned receivable at prevailing higher market rates.
Spot rate : 60 
Loan Amount : Rs 60 Crore 
Fixed rupee interest rate : 13% 
12 Half Yearly repayment : Rs 5 Cr 
$833333/- 
XYZ PVT LTD SBI 
Rs 5.0 crore 
Interest @ 6% 
Pay to ICICI Rs 5.0 cr 
+ Interest @13% 
SBI will sell the USD in forward 
market and receive a forward 
premium of @ 7%
Thank you 
Raj Kumar Sharma

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Financial arbitrage

  • 2. • Its an opportunity to buy an asset at a low price then immediately selling it on a different market for a higher price. • An investment practice that attempts to profit from inefficiencies in price by making transactions that offset each other • In economics, arbitrage is the practice of taking advantage of a price difference between two or more markets, the profit being the difference between the market prices.
  • 3. Arbitrage is possible when one of three conditions is met: •The same asset does not trade at the same price in all markets. •An asset with a known price in the future does not today trade at its future price discounted at the risk-free interest rate . •Two assets with identical cash flows do not trade at the same price.
  • 4. 1) Example : • Assume on some given day at some point of time SBI is trading in NSE @2400 & on BSE @ 2403. • Simultaneous buying of SBI Stock @2400 in NSE and selling it on BSE @ 2403. 2) Example : • Assume SBI Future (lot size 125) for current month is trading at 2400 as against cash market of 2390. • Buy 125 SBI stock in cash market @ 2390 • Sell one lot of SBI future @ 2400 • Reverse the position on future settlement date. 3) Example : • Buy Rice from Kakinada Hyderabad @ Rs 28per/ kg and sell it in Kashmir @ Rs 40/kg. 4) Example : • Buy Nifty future in SGX Nifty @ 7950 and sell in NSE @ 7960 • Unwind both positions when the gap becomes narrow.
  • 5. • Arbitrage has the effect of causing prices in different markets to converge. As a result of arbitrage, the currency exchange rates, the price of commodities, and the price of securities in different markets tend to converge. • Arbitrage tends to reduce price discrimination by encouraging people to buy an item where the price is low and resell it where the price is high.
  • 6. Buyers credit Vs Working Capital Case : XYZ is a importer and it has imported a machinery from Germany for $100000/- The payment for this is due today. As it is a import of capital goods, company can avail buyers credit up to 3 years instead of paying the cost immediately. Lets assume company has taken buyers credit for 1 year. Working Capital Buyers credit Rate of Interest 14% 6M Libor + 100 Forward Premium for 6 2.50 Months Today spot 60.44 Forward premium in % 8.27% p.a. 6 Month Libor 0.33% LOC Charges 2.1% Total Cost 14% 11.7% An arbitrage of 2.3%
  • 7. FCNB (DL) Vs Working Capital XYZ is a domestic company with no foreign exchange exposure. It has a working capital limit of Rs 100crore. The Minimum debit balance at any time is Rs 45 crore. Company XYZ will convert this Rupee exposure to foreign currency exposure by availing fully hedged FCNB (DL) and will get a safe arbitrage. Working Capital FCNB (DL) Interest Rate 14% 6M Libor + 300 ** 6 Months forward 8.27% premium 6 Months Libor 0.33% Other cost (Processing / cash spot etc) 0.50% (assume) Total Cost 14% 12.1% Safe arbitrage of 1.90%
  • 8. PCFC vs Rs EPC XYZ is an exporter and it regularly avails PCFC for execution of its export orders Q . Why XYZ is availing PCFC and not rupee Loan ? A. 1) To reduce cost 2) To hedge its future receivables. PCFC Rs EPC Cost 6M Libor + 200 10% 6 M Libor 0.33% Forward Premium for 6 Months (-)8.27% Interest Subsidy (-)3% Total Cost 2.33% (-)1.27% ** ##
  • 9. Rupee-Dollar Swap XYZ is a exporter and it has taken a Rupee Term loan of Rs 60crore@13%. The receivables of XYZ co is in USD & liabilities are in Rupee. XYZ wants to convert its Rupee Term Loan to USD, reasons could be 1.Asset Liability mismatch. 2. Foreign Exchange conversion risk. 3.Arbitrage Opportunity. XYZ will convert its Rupee loan to USD loan by dollarizing its exposure and in the process will receive a positive carry of lets assume 6%. Benefits: •Now the companies receivables are in USD and Payables are also in USD •Company has effectively reduced its cost from 13% to (13-6%) i.e.7%. Risks : • If INR depreciates than the available arbitrage will come down and on INR depreciating beyond cut off , company will loose notionally on locking their receivables at lower conversion rates. (opportunity loss). •Company cannot convert its assigned receivable at prevailing higher market rates.
  • 10. Spot rate : 60 Loan Amount : Rs 60 Crore Fixed rupee interest rate : 13% 12 Half Yearly repayment : Rs 5 Cr $833333/- XYZ PVT LTD SBI Rs 5.0 crore Interest @ 6% Pay to ICICI Rs 5.0 cr + Interest @13% SBI will sell the USD in forward market and receive a forward premium of @ 7%
  • 11. Thank you Raj Kumar Sharma