1. MAT–PAST PAPERS
MAT- UNSOLVED PAPER –MAY- 2003

2. SECTION- A
LANGUAGE COMPREHENSION

3. Directions (Qs. 1 to 3):
Read the following passage carefully to answer these questions based on what is
slated or implied in the passage.

4. Global outlook remains uncertain, given the weak growth impulses in major advanced economies,
espe-cially in the USA, and the down side risks to such recovery emanating from the volatility in
international crude oil prices and the continuing geopolitical tension in the Middle East. However,
resilience of India's per-formance has been vindicated by its successfully han-dling in the recent past a
series of external shocks, like the Asian crisis of 1997, crude oil shock of 2000 and the synchronized
slowdown of global activity in 2001. India's external position continues to remain strong with the rising
level of foreign exchange reserves providing a cushion against any such major shocks. The current
account surplus reflects both, strength in goods and service exports and buoyant net transfer. Revival of
domestic demand is likely to boost further main sources of capital inflows, thus aiding in further reserve
accu-mulation in the short run.
Surging foreign exchanges reserves have provided an opportunity towards further relaxation of existing
capital controls. Such measured approach towards capital account convertibility needs to be continued.
The rising reserves also provide a greater flexibility to exchange rate management towards developing
deeper market for foreign exchange transactions. The reserves further provide an opportunity to
expedite completion of trade liberalization agenda. Notwithstanding various reforms, India's tariffs
remain high by Indian and inter-national standards and its trade regime remains rela-tively restrictive.
The broad road map for liberalization of customs tariff has already been indicated in the Union Budget

5. 2002-03 and has been further detailed in the Ministry of Finance task force report on Indirect Taxation.
Faster implementation of such tariff reforms (without any prejudice to our negotiations on this issue
under Doha mandate in WTO), apart from further removing anti-export bias and simplifying the trade
regime, would stimulate imports and create necessary demand for foreign exchange.
Such imports liberalization is also likely to relieve any upward pressure on the rupee and would bring the
useful efficiency gain to the economy.
Medium term BOP outlook would depend upon several factors. A robust growth in exports remains one
of the most critical factor in the long term viability of external sector. Uneven performance of
merchan-dise exports in the recent past, if continued, could in-troduce a structural weakness in the
balance of pay-ments in the medium term. Exports thus hold the key in achieving a sustainable balance
between the require-ment of higher growth and the imperative of ensuring viability in the external
sector. Micro strategies for export growth based on various policy pronouncements therefore, need to be
designed to put export growth on a higher and sustainable growth trajectory. On the imports side, given
our rising independence on imported crude oil, the economy needs to be insulated from continuing
volatility in international crude oil prices impacting on our balance of payments and the oil se-curity of
the country. Efforts towards strengthening of the service sector also need to be sustained and
inten-sified to capitalize on the growing opportunities in this sector.

6. Steady foreign investment inflow have been instru-mental in strengthening the balance of payments in
the recent past. Given the potential for higher direct for-eign investment in India, a further considered
liberalization of the investment inflows, thus supporting the investment needs of the economy for higher
growth and providing strength to prudent debt management. New initiatives like refinancing of costly
debts, prepay-ment of identified high cost debt and exploring the possibility of using the financial
products for hedging of risk for active management of sovereign debt would be helpful in further
improving the sustainability of exter-nal debt indicators of the economy. As regards the global trade
agenda, India has repeatedly stated its support for WTO and the Doha Development Agenda. However,
further progress on the global trade negotia-tions would depend upon developed countries keeping their
promises made in Doha.

7. 01 Problem
New initiatives which would be helpful in improving the sustainability of the
external debt indicators is/ are
a. Prepayment of identified high cost debt.
b. Refinancing of costly debts
c. Hedging of risk for active management of sov-ereign debts through financial
products.
d. All of the above

8. 02 Problem
According to the passage, what provides the opportunity to expedite completion
of the trade liberalization agenda?
a. Capital inflow
b. Crude oil
c. Forex reserves
d. Geo-political stability

9. 03 Problem
India has been vindicated by its successfully han-dling in the recent past a series
of external shocks — Asian crisis of 1997, crude oil shock 2000, syn-chronized
slowdown of global activity in 2001, be-cause of:
a. Revival of domestic demand.
b. Rising level of forex reserves.
c. Current account surplus
d. High Indian tariffs in its trade regime.

10. Directions (Qs. 4 to 6):
Read the following passage carefully to answer these questions based on what
is stated or implied in the passage:

11. The first important point about how children learn prejudice is that they do. They aren't born that way,
though some people think prejudice is innate and like to quote the old saying, "You can't change human
na-ture." But you can change it. We know that very small children are free of prejudice. Studies of school
chil-dren have shown that prejudice is slight or absent among children in the first and second grades.
After this, it may fall off again in adolescence. Other studies have shown that, on an average, young
adults are much freer of prejudice than older ones.
In the early stages of picking up prejudice, children mix it with ignorance which, as I've said, should be
distinguished from prejudice. A child, as he begins to study the world around him, tries to organize his
expe-riences.
Doing this, he begins to classify things and people and begins to form connections — or what
psycholo-gists call associations. He needs to do this because he saves time and effort by putting things
and people into categories. But unless he classifies correctly, his cat-egories will mislead rather than
guide him. For ex-ample, if a child learns that "all fires are hot and dan-gerous," fires have been put
firmly into the category of things to be watched carefully — and thus he can save himself from harm. But
if he learns a category like "Negroes are Lazy" or "foreigners are fools," he's learned generalizations that
mislead because they're unreliable. The thing is that, when we use categories, we need to remember the
exceptions and differences, the individual variations that qualify the usefulness of all generalizations.

12. Some fires, for example, are hotter and more dangerous than others. If people had avoided all fires as
dangerous, we would never have had cen-tral heating.
More importantly, we can ill afford to treat people of any given group as generally alike, even when it's
possible to make some accurate generalization about them. So when a child first begins to group things
together, it's advisable that he learns differences as well as similarities. For example, basic among the
dis-tinctions he draws is the division into "good" and "bad", which he makes largely on the grounds of
what his parents do and say about things and the people. Thus, he may learn that dirt is "bad" because
his mother washes him every time he gets dirty. By extension, seeing a Negro child, he might point to
him and say, "Bad child", for the Negro child's face is brown, hence unwashed and dirty, and so, "bad."
We call this prelogical thing, and all of us go through this phase before we learn to think more effectively.
But some people remain at this stage and never learn that things seem alike, such as dirt and brown
pigment are really quite different. Whether a child gradu-ates from this stage to correct thinking or to
prejudicial thinking, depends to a great extent on his experiences with his parents and teachers.

13. 04 Problem
Which one of the following statements is true?
a. Children up to the age of six or seven years are less likely to be prejudiced.
b. One is born with prejudice.
c. As one grows, prejudices fall off.
d. One's prejudices remain forever.

14. 05 Problem
While making categories, the important things to re-member are
a. Only differences
b. Only exceptions
c. Exceptions and differences
d. Only similarities

15. 06 Problem
Which one of the following statements is not true?
a. It is possible to shed prejudices at any stage
b. Parents can help children to correct thinking.
c. Prejudice and ignorance are not the same.
d. Things that seem alike are necessarily similar.

16. Directions (Qs. 7 to 9):
Read the following passage carefully to answer these questions based on what
is stated or implied in the passage,

17. Peace and order are necessary, not just in our own country but also at the international level, if we are to
secure national progress and development. The differ-ent countries in the world are coming closer today
due to faster means of transport and communications. Eco-nomically, they are becoming increasingly
inter-depen-dent. If peace is disturbed in one part of the world, it has adverse effects in other parts of
the world as well. Nuclear weapons have already threatened the world with nuclear war. If the conflicts
between different nations are not settled in time, they might culminate in a nuclear war destroying the
whole world. It is there-fore in our own interest that the world is free of con-flicts. If at all there are, they
must be settled promptly and peace should be restored. That is why we have declared the establishment
of international peace and understanding as an objective of our foreign policy.
We need the help and co-operation of other coun-tries for our scientific, industrial and economic
develop-ment, especially in those fields where we have yet to achieve self sufficiency. We obtain the
latest machin-ery, technology and financial aid from the developed countries.
On our part, we too, offer help to the under-devel-oped countries. We are keen on maintaining friendly
relations with other countries. Such friendly relations foster international understanding.
We have always exerted ourselves to see that the disputes arising between the different nations are
settled through peaceful negotiations. We play an active role in the United Nations, the South Asian
Association for Regional Cooperation, the Commonwealth of Nations and other such international

18. organizations. We make it a point to participate in international conferences on issues like energy crisis,
environmental imbalance, nuclear arms race, etc. We always offer a helping hand to other nations
affected by natural calamities such as famines, earthquakes, floods and so cm. We strive to maintain
peaceful and friendly relations with our neighboring countries. Why do we do all this? We sincerely
believe that the conflicts in today's world should be minimized, making way for better coopera-tion
among the nations. If this is achieved, human re-sources will no longer be wasted in things like war or
aggression. There will be no destruction of wealth. We believe that, in a peaceful world, there will he
greater scope for the economic and cultural development of countries.

19. 07 Problem
What is the main idea expressed in this passage?
a. Peace is necessary for overall development of our country
b. Threat of nuclear war.
c. Economic inter-dependence of nations.
d. Peace will lead to cultural development of na-tions.

20. 08 Problem
Which of the following words is most opposite in meaning of the word 'foster' as
used in the pas-sage?
a. Facilitate
b. Hinder
c. Advocate
d. Obviate

21. 09 Problem
The question, "why do we do all this?" is asked in the passage in which of the
following contexts?
a. We offer a helping hand to other nations in im-proving their technology.
b. We obtain technology and financial aid from the developed countries.
c. We Endeavour to maintain peaceful and friendly relations with our
neighbors.
d. We have shaped our foreign policy in balanced and purposeful manner.

22. Directions (Q. 10 to 12):
Read the following passage carefully to answer these questions based on what is
stated or implied in the passage.

23. The atmosphere is a mixture of several gases. There are about ten chemical elements, which remain
permanently in gaseous form in the atmosphere under all natural conditions. Of these permanent gases,
oxy-gen makes up about 21 percent and nitrogen about 78 percent. Several other gases, such as argon,
carbon dioxide, hydrogen, neon, krypton and xenon, comprise the remaining 1 percent of the volume of
dry air. The amount of water vapour, and its variations in amount and distribution are of extraordinary
importance in whether changes. Atmospheric gases hold in suspen-sion great quantities of dust, pollen,
smoke and other impurities which are always present in considerable, but variable amounts.
The atmosphere has no definite upper limits but gradually thins until it becomes imperceptible. Until
recently it was assumed that the air above the first few miles gradually grew thinner and colder at a
constant rate. It was also assumed that upper air had little influence on weather changes. Recent studies
of the upper atmosphere, currently being conducted by earth satellites and missile probing, have shown
these as-sumptions to be incorrect. The atmosphere has three well-defined strata.
The layer of the air next to the earth, which ex-tends upward for about ten miles, is known as the
troposphere. On the whole it makes up about 75 per-cent of all the weight of the atmosphere. It is the
warmest part of the atmosphere because most of the solar radiation is absorbed by the earth's surface,
which warms the air immediately surrounding it. A steady decrease of temperature with increasing
elevation is the most striking characteristic. The upper layers are colder because of their greater distance

24. from the earth's surface and rapid radiation of heat into space. The temperature within the troposphere
decreases about 3.5 degrees per 1000 feet increase in altitude. Within the troposphere, winds and air
currents distribute heat and moisture. Strong winds, called jet streams, are located at the upper layers of
the troposphere. These jet streams are both complex and widespread in occur-rence. They normally
show a wave-shaped pattern and move from west to east at velocities of 150 mph, but velocities as high
as 400 mph have been noted. The influences of changing locations and strengths of jet streams upon
weather conditions and patterns are no doubt considerable. Current intensive research may eventually
reveal their true significance.
Above the troposphere to a height about 50 miles is a zone called the stratosphere. The stratosphere is
separated from the troposphere by a zone of uniform temperatures called the tropopause. Within the
lower portions of the stratosphere is the layer of ozone gases which filters out most of the ultraviolet
rays from the sun. The ozone layer varies with air pressure. If this zone where not there, the full blast of
sun's ultraviolet light would burn our skins, blind our eyes, and eventu-ally result in our destruction.
Within the stratosphere, the temperature and atmospheric compositions are rela-tively uniform.
The layer upward of about 50 miles is the most fascinating but the least known of these three strata. It is
called the ionosphere because it consists of electri-cally-charged particles called ions, thrown from the
sun. The northern light (aurora borealis) originates within this highly-charged portion of the atmosphere.

25. Its ef-fect upon weather conditions, if any, is as yet unknown.

26. 10 Problem
According to the passage, life as we know, exists on the earth because the
atmosphere
a. contains electrically-charged particles
b. is warmest at the bottom
c. carries ultraviolet rays
d. contains a layer of ozone gas.

27. 11 Problem
The passage supplies information that would answer which of the following
questions?
a. How do the troposphere and stratosphere differ?
b. How does ionosphere affect the weather?
c. How do the earth satellites study the atmo-sphere?
a. (a) only
b. (c)only
c. (a), (b) and (c)
d. and (c) only.

28. 12 Problem
The passage states that troposphere is the warmest part of the atmosphere
because it
a. is closest to the sun
b. contains electrically-charged particles
c. is warmed by the earth's heat
d. has winds and air currents that distribute the heat

29. Directions (Q. 13 ):
Read the following passage carefully to answer these questions based on what is
stated or implied in the passage.
The phenomena of child labor is quite complex. Children work because they
belong to poor families who cannot survive without the benefit of the income,
which accrues to the family on account of child labor. Any attempt to abolish it
through legal resource would, under the circumstances, not be practical. The only
alternative is to ban child lab our in hazardous areas and to regulate and
ameliorate the conditions of work in other areas. Many developing countries
including India have accepted this approach.

30. 13 Problem
What can be inferred about the policy being fol-lowed about child labor in India?
a. Giving economic benefits to the families of child laborers’.
b. Reducing/controlling child labour in unhealthy areas of work.
c. Maintaining and improving working conditions for children.
a. Only (a) and (b)
b. Only(b)
c. (a), (b) and (c)
d. Only (b) and (c).

31. Directions (Q. 14):
Read the following passage carefully to answer these questions based on what is
stated or implied in the passage.
Due to the media and communication explosion and the effect of globalization,
markets all over the world are going through a phase of metamorphoses. The
visual media is regularly exposing a newer life styles, products and services to the
fast expanding netizen-driven society. Today, consumers have become quite
concerned about health issues and are taking a great interest in food matters.
Environmental issues, greater segmentation and increased mobility are the added
factors. Besides, the green movement supported by media coverage has been
creating the urge for natural food.

32. 14 Problem
According to the passage, the major concern of the consumers is
a. urge for natural food
b. environmental issues
c. health and food matters
d. support for the green movement.

33. Directions (Q. 15 to 17):
A word is given in capital letters followed by four meanings of which two are
appropriate. Identify the appropriate ones.

34. 15 Problem
HAIL
a. call out to
b. pull
c. compel
d. Acclaim
a. (a) and (b)
b. (a) and (c)
c. (a) and (b)
d. (b)and(d)

35. 16 Problem
BUCKLE
a. dislodge
b. become tense
c. crumple
d. Fasten
a. (a) and (c)
b. (a) and (b)
c. (b)and(d)
d. (c)and(d)

36. 17 Problem
BLAZE
a. A mark on a tree
b. Ennui
c. Flash
d. Fire
a. (a) and (b)
b. (a) and (c)
c. (a) and (d)
d. (c) and (d)

37. Directions (Q. 18 to 20):
A word in capital letters is followed by four words. Choose the word that is
most nearly opposite in meaning to the word given in capital letters.

38. 18 Problem
PROSAIC
a. Pensive
b. Imaginative
c. Rhetorical
d. Pacified

39. 19 Problem
LEVITY
a. Praise
b. Blame
c. Solemnity
d. Frivolity

40. 20 Problem
OBLOQUY
a. Praise
b. Cruel
c. Slander
d. Dialogue.

41. Directions (Qs. 21 to 23):
In each of these questions, two words of a sentence are left blank. Choose the
best alternative to fill the blanks.

42. 21 Problem
The…….. terrorist was finally………. by the police.
a. famous, apprehended
b. notorious, nabbed
c. crafty, admonished
d. renowned, caught

43. 22 Problem
It is foolish to vent your spleen on a/ an ………. object. Still, you make………..
enemies that way.
a. immobile, bitter.
b. interesting, curious
c. humane, more
d. inanimate, fewer

44. 23 Problem
Compromise is………. to passionate natures be­cause it seems to surrender; and
to intellectual na­tures because it seems a………………………
a. unsuited, submission
b. odious, confusion
c. intimidations, dichotomy
d. inherent, fabrication

45. Directions (Q. 24 to 26):
Each sentence has four parts marked A, B, C and D. Identify the one that must
be changed for the sentence to be correct.

46. 24 Problem
Organised (A) labour has fight (B) for and won protection and benefits (C) for its
(D) workers.

47. 25 Problem
A music and dance show have been (A) organized to raise (B) funds for the
orphanage on the first (C) Saturday of next (D) month.

48. 26 Problem
The book is well-printed (A) and attractively bound (B) making altogether (C) an
attractive volume. (D)

49. Directions (Q. 27 to 29):
Each of these questions has an idiomatic expression followed by four options.
Choose the one close to its meaning.

50. 27 Problem
'Dog in the manger‘
a. A person who is not liked by others
b. A person who is hounded
c. A person who puts himself in a difficulty on account of other people
d. A person who prevents others from enjoying something useless to himself

51. 28 Problem
'Talk shop‘
a. Talk exclusively about shopping
b. Talk exclusively about business or professional affairs
c. Talk about the latest trends in fashion
d. Talk about inane things

52. 29 Problem
'Stick to one's guns‘
a. Remain faithful to the cause
b. Suspect something
c. Make something
d. Be satisfied

53. Directions (Qs. 30 to 32):
Each sentence has an underlined word. Choose the best word or phrase from
the options which can replace it.

54. 30 Problem
She saw through the con man's wiles.
a. Timing
b. Casualness
c. Sudden fancy
d. Trickery

55. 31 Problem
It is a woman's prerogative to change her mind.
a. Opinion
b. Wealth
c. Privilege
d. Knowledge

56. 32 Problem
The inexorable demands of the workers brought the company to a closure.
a. Unreasonable
b. Monetary
c. Violent
d. Relentless

57. Directions (Q. 33 to 35):
In each of these questions a related pair of words is followed by four pairs of
words. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to the one
expressed in the original pair.

58. 33 Problem
ELUSIVE : CAPTURE : :
a. Elastic : Stretch
b. Gullible : Trick
c. Headstrong : Control
d. Sensible : Decide

59. 34 Problem
APHORISM : SENTENTIOUS : :
a. Criticism : Redundant
b. Eulogy : Laudatory
c. Adage : Symbolic
d. Maxim : Allegorical.

60. 35 Problem
PHYSIQUE : STURDY : :
a. Punctuality : Tardy
b. Intellect : Noble
c. Fabric : Warm
d. Investment : Sound

61. Directions (Qs. 36 to 40):
Each sentence has one underlined part. There are three possible substitutes. If
one of them is better than the underlined part, then choose that as your answer.
If none of the substitutes improves the sentence, then choose (4) as your answer.

62. 36 Problem
The Vice President of the local bank spoke for a half an hour and told his
colleague that he. his col-league, must consider finding a new job, or accept a
reduction in salary.
a. for a half hour and told his colleague that he must consider to find a new job
b. for half an hour and told his colleague that the colleague must get employed
by a new bank.
c. for half an hour and told his colleague to con-sider finding a new job
d. no change

63. 37 Problem
He does not smoke, nor he drinks.
a. nor he does drink
b. neither he does drink
c. nor does he drink
d. no change

64. 38 Problem
She wished that her career could be as glamorous as the other women but was
not willing to work as hard as them.
a. as glamorous as the other women's
b. more glamorous than the career of the other women
c. glamour's
d. no change

65. 39 Problem
Although he is liable to make political enemies with the decision, the Finance
Minister will propose se-vere tax cuts that may both stimulate business and
reduce the availability of loans.
a. liable from
b. tabletop
c. of a mind to
d. no change.

66. 40 Problem
No matter what experience you have had with for-est fires, if you would have
witnessed the fire roar-ing down through the canyon, you would have been
terrified.
a. if you witnessed
b. if you had witnessed
c. if you could witness
d. no change

67. SECTION- B
MATHEMATICAL SKILLS

68. 41 Problem
The minute and the hour hand of a watch meet ev-ery 65 minutes. How much
does the watch lose or gain time in one meeting of the hands?
a. 25 seconds
b. 27 seconds
c. 27.16 seconds
d. 30 seconds

69. 42 Problem
At the start of a seminar, the ratio of the number of male participants to the
number of female partici-pants was 3:1. During tea break, 16 participants left and
6 more female participants registered. The ratio of the male to the female
participants became 2:1. What was the total number of participants at the start
of the seminar?
a. 64
b. 48
c. 54
d. 72

70. 43 Problem
A positive integer, which when added to 1000, gives a sum which is greater than
when it is multiplied by 1000. This positive integer is
a. 1
b. 5
c. 7
d. 3

71. 44 Problem
Three friends divided some bullets equally. After all of them shot 4 bullets each,
the total number of bullets remaining is equal to the bullets each had after
division. Find the original number of bullets.
a. 15
b. 17
c. 20
d. 18

72. 45 Problem
Of the 120 people in the room, 3/5 are women. If 2/ 3 of the people are married,
then what is the maxi-mum number of women in the room who could be
unmarried?
a. 40
b. 20
c. 30
d. 60

73. 46 Problem
A worker earns a 5% raise. A year later, the worker receives a 2.5% cut in pay, and
now his salary is Rs. 22702.68. What was his salary to begin with?
a. Rs 22000
b. Rs 22176
c. Rs 25000
d. Rs 22193

74. 47 Problem
There are 20 poles with a constant distance between each pole. A car takes 24
seconds to reach the 12th pole. How much more time will it take to reach the last
pole?
a. 25.25 seconds
b. 17.45 seconds
c. 35.75 seconds
d. 41.45 seconds

75. 48 Problem
In a triangle ABC, the lengths of sides AB, AC and BC are 3, 5 and 6 cm
respectively. If a point D on BC is drawn such that the line AD bisects the angle A
internally, then what is the length of BD?
a. 2 cm
b. 2.25 cm
c. 2.5 cm
d. 3 cm

76. 49 Problem
A person spends 1/3 of the money with him on clothes, 1/5 of the remaining on
food and ¼ of the remaining on travel. Now, he is left with Rs 100. How much did
he have with him in the beginning?
a. Rs 200
b. Rs 250
c. Rs 300
d. Rs 450

77. 50 Problem
Suresh is half his father's age. After 20 years, his father's age will be one and a
half times Suresh's age. What is his father's age now?
a. 40
b. 20
c. 26
d. 30

78. 51 Problem
1/3rd of the contents of. a container evaporated on 1st day. 3/4th of the remaining
evaporated on the second day. What part of the contents of the con-tainer is left
at the end of the second day?
a. ¼
b. 1/2
c. 1/18
d. 1/6

79. 52 Problem
The jogging track in a sports complex is 726 metres in circumference. Suresh and
his wife start from the same point and walk in opposite directions at 4.5 km/h
and 3.75 km/h respectively. They will meet for the first time in
a. 5.5 min.
b. 6.0min.
c. 5.28 min
d. 4.9 min

80. 53 Problem
A man received a cheque in which the rupees were transposed for paise and vice
versa. After spend-ing 5 rupees 42 paise, he discovered that he now had exactly
six times the value of the correct cheque amount. What amount should he have
received?
a. Rs 6.44
b. Rs 3.22
c. Rs 18.25
d. Rs 8.36

81. 54 Problem
Mohan ate half a pizza on Monday. He ate half of what was left on Tuesday and
so on. He followed this pattern for one week. How much of the pizza would he
have eaten during the week?
a. 99.22%
b. 95%
c. 98.22%
d. 100%

82. 55 Problem
All the students of a batch opted Psychology, Busi-ness, or both. 73% of the
students opted Psychol-ogy and 62% opted Business. If there are 220 stu-dents,
how many of them opted for both Psychol-ogy and Business?
a. 60
b. 100
c. 77
d. 35

83. 56 Problem
A horse is placed for grazing inside a rectangular field of 70 m by 52 m and is
tethered to one corner by a rope 21 m long. On how much area can it graze?
a. 386.5 m2
b. 325.5 m2
c. 346.5 m2
d. 246.5 m2

84. 57 Problem
What is the remainder left after dividing 1! + 2! + 3! +……….+ 100! by 7?
a. 0
b. 5
c. 21
d. 4

85. 58 Problem
Silu and Meenu were walking on the road. Silusaid "I weigh 51 kg. How much do
you weigh?" Meenu replied that she wouldn't reveal her weight directly as she
was overweight. But she said, "I weigh 29 kg plus half of my weight." How much
does Meenu weigh?
a. 52 kg
b. 58 kg
c. 63 kg
d. 57 kg

86. 59 Problem
How many squares are there in a 5 inch by 5 inch square grid, if the grid is made
up of one inch by one inch squares?
a. 50
b. 150
c. 55
d. 25

87. 60 Problem
My friend collects antique stamps. She purchased two, but found that she
needed to raise money ur-gently. So she sold them for Rs 8000 each. On one she
made 20% and on the other she lost 20%. How much did she gain or lose in the
entire transaction?
a. No Loss/Profit
b. Rs 667 Loss
c. Rs 667 Profit
d. None of these

88. 61 Problem
If a and b are the roots of the quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, then the value
of a2/b + b2/a is:
a. (3bc - a)/b2c
b. (3abc - b3)/a2c
c. (3abc - b2)/a3c
d. (ab - b2c)/2b2c

89. 62 Problem
3 chairs and 2 tables cost Rs 700, while 5 chairs and 3 tables cost Rs 1100. What is
the cost of 2 chairs and 2 tables?
a. Rs 300
b. Rs 350
c. Rs 450
d. Rs 600

90. 63 Problem
If a, b are the two roots of a quadratic equation such that a + b = 24 and a - b = 8,
then the quadratic equation having a and b as its roots is
a. x2 + 2x + 8 = 0
b. x2 - 4x + 8 = 0
c. x2 - 24x + 128 = 0
d. 2x2 + 8x + 9 = 0

91. 64 Problem
The area of a rhombus is 2016 sq cm and its side is 65 cm. The lengths of the
diagonals (in cm) respec-tively are
a. 125,35
b. 126,32
c. 132,26
d. 135,25

92. 65 Problem
A cylindrical bucket of height 36 cm and radius 21 cm is filled with sand. The
bucket is emptied on the ground and a conical heap of sand is formed. The height
of the conical heap is 12 cm. The radius of the heap at the base is
a. 63 cm
b. 53 cm
c. 56 cm
d. 66 cm

93. 66 Problem
How can the relationship between x and y be best defined, if the value of x and y
are as follows?
X 2 3 4 5 6
y 0 2 6 12 20
a. Y=x2-3x+
b. y = 2x – 4
c. y = x2 - 4x
d. y = x2 – 4

94. 67 Problem
A can do a work in 9 days. If B is 50% more effi-cient than A, then in how many
days can B do the same work?
a. 13.5
b. x4.5
c. 6
d. 3

95. 68 Problem
If (a + 1/a)2 = 3, then what is the value of a3 + 1/a3?
a. 10√3/3
b. 0
c. 3√3
d. 6√3

96. 69 Problem
If the radius of a circle is increased by 100%, then the area of the circle increases
by
a. 100%
b. 200%
c. 300%
d. 400%

97. 70 Problem
What is the quotient if x 1 - 1 is divided by x - 1?
a. 1/(x-1)
b. x
c. -1/(x - 1)
d. -1/x

98. 71 Problem
A trader wants 10% profit on the selling price of a product whereas his expenses
amount to 15% on sales. What should his rate of mark up be on an article ofRs.
9?
a. 20%
b. 25%
c. 30%
d. 100/3%.

99. 72 Problem
I forgot the last digit of a 7-digit telephone number. If I randomly dial the final 3
digits after correctly dialing the first four, then what is the chance of dialing the
correct number?
a. 1/1001
b. 1/990
c. 1/999
d. 1/1000

100. 73 Problem
From the top of a lighthouse 60 metres high with its base at the sea level, the
angle of depression of a boat is 30°. The distance of the boat from the foot of the
lighthouse is
a. 10√3
b. 20 √3 m
c. 15a √3 m
d. 60 √3m

101. 74 Problem
A hemispherical bowl is made of steel 0.5 cm thick. The inside radius of the bowl
is 4 cm. The volume of the steel used in making the bowl is
a. 55.83 cm3
b. 56.83 cm3
c. 57.83 cm3
d. 58.83 cm3

102. 75 Problem
Of the 1000 inhabitants of a town, 60% are males of whom 20% are literate. If, of
all the inhabitants, 25% are literate, then what % of the females of the town are
literate?
a. 22.5
b. 27.5
c. 32.5
d. 37.5

103. 76 Problem
The points (0, 8/3), (1,3) and (82, 30) are the verti-ces of
a. An obtuse-angled triangle
b. A right-angled triangle
c. An acute-angled triangle
d. None of these

104. 77 Problem
How many odd numbered pages are there in a book of 1089 pages?
a. 545
b. 544
c. 546
d. 542

105. 78 Problem
Two equal sums of money are lent at the same time at 8% and 7% per annum
simple interest. The former is recovered 6 months earlier than the latter and the
amount in each case is Rs 2560. The sum and the time for which the sums of
money are lent out are
a. Rs 1500, 3.5 years and 4 years
b. Rs 2000, 3.5 years and 4 years
c. Rs 2000, 4 years and 5.5 years
d. Rs. 3000, 4 years and 4.5 years

106. 79 Problem
If p is a prime number greater than 3, then (p2 - 1) is always divisible by
a. 6 but not 12
b. 24
c. 2 but not 24
d. None of these

107. 80 Problem
A storage tank consists of a circular cylinder with a hemisphere adjoined on
either side. If the external diameter of the cylinder is 14 m and its length is 50 m,
then what will be the cost of painting it @ Rs 10 per sq m?
a. Rs 38160
b. Rs28160
c. Rs 39160
d. None of these

108. SECTION-C
DATA ANALYSIS & SUFFICIENCY

109. Directions (Q. 81 to 85):
These questions are based on the graph below which shows the Demand and
Production statistics of five companies.

110. 81 Problem
What is the ratio of the companies having more de-mand than production to
those having more produc-tion than demand?
a. 2:3
b. 4:1
c. 2 :2
d. 3 : 2

111. 82 Problem
What is the difference between the average demand and the average production
of five companies taken together?
a. 1400
b. 400
c. 280
d. 138

112. 83 Problem
The production of the Company D is how many times of the production of the
Company A?
a. 1.8
b. 1.5
c. 2.5
d. 1.11

113. 84 Problem
The demand of Company B is what percent of the demand of Company C?
a. 4
b. 24
c. 20
d. 60

114. 85 Problem
If Company A desires to meet the demand by pro-curing TV sets from a single
company, then which one of the following can meet the need adequately?
a. B
b. C
c. D
d. None

115. Directions (Q. 86 to 89):
In the chart given below, A, B, C, D and E represent the costs of Paper, Printing,
Binding, Miscellaneous and the Royalty respectively in publishing a book.

116. 86 Problem
What is the angle of the pie chart showing the ex-penditure incurred on Royalty?
a. 15°
b. 24°
c. 48°
d. 54°

117. 87 Problem
The market price of the book is 20% more than the C.P. If the marked price of the
book is Rs. 30, then what is the cost of the paper used in a single copy of the
book?
a. Rs. 6
b. Rs. 5
c. Rs. 4.50
d. Rs 6.50

118. 88 Problem
Which two expenditures together will form an angle 108° at the centre of the
diagram?
a. A and E
b. B and E
c. A and D
d. D and E

119. 89 Problem
If the difference between the two expenditures is represented by 18 degrees in
the diagram, then those expenditures must be
a. B and E
b. A and C
c. B and D
d. None of these

120. Directions (Q. 90 to 95):
Loan disbursed by five banks (in Rs. Crore) are given in the table below.
Banks 1990 1991 1992 1993 1994
A 18 23 45 30 70
B 27 33 18 41 37
C 29 29 22 17 11
D 31 16 28 32 43
E 13 19 27 34 42

121. 90 Problem
In which year was the distribution of loans of all the banks put together least
compared to the average disbursement of loans over the years?
a. 1990
b. 1991
c. 1992
d. 1994

122. 91 Problem
What was the percentage increase of disbursement of loans of all the banks
together from 1992 to 1993?
a. 110%
b. 14%
c. 10%
d. 11%

123. 92 Problem
In which year was the disbursement of loans of banks A and B exactly equal to
the total disburse-ment of loans of banks D and E?
a. 1991
b. 1992
c. 1994
d. None

124. 93 Problem
If the minimum target in the succeeding year was 20 % of the total disbursement
of loans, then how many banks reached the target in 1991 ?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

125. 94 Problem
In which bank was the loan disbursement more than 25 % of the disbursement of
all banks in 1994?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

126. 95 Problem
By what percent did the loan disbursement increase from 1990 to 1994?
a. 72
b. 82
c. 94
d. 91

127. Directions (Qs. 96 to 98):
The bar graph pertains to the estimates of incidence of poverty in India, given as
%ge. The table following the graph gives the population of India during 1971-
2001 as per census.

128. Population All India
1971 548160
1981 684329
1991 846302
2001 1027015

129. 96 Problem
The total number of the poor in 2,000 is approxi-mately
a. 268millions
b. 278 millions
c. 242 millions
d. 300millions

130. 97 Problem
"The total number of the people below poverty line has been consistently
declining during 1971 -2001." This statement is
a. Correct
b. Incorrect
c. Partially correct
d. Inadequate data

131. 98 Problem
From the given data, it can be inferred that
a. Rural poverty ratio is constantly declining
b. Urban poverty ratio has been consistently fall-ing
c. Combined ratio has been decreasing
d. All of the Above.

132. Directions (Q 99 to 103):
Study the data given below to answer these questions:
1995 1996 1997 1998 1999
LG 30,000 38,000 36,000 42,000 40,000
Samsung 17,000 28,000 33,000 32,000 27,000
Sony 12,500 20,000 35,000 40,000 50,000
National 30,000 25,000 22,000 20,000 15,000
Pansonic
Toshiba 15,725 18,625 13,275 14,375 16,000

133. 99 Problem
The average annual sale of which brand is the highest?
a. LG
b. Sony
c. National Panasonic
d. Toshiba

134. 100 Problem
Which of the following statements is/are true?
I. LG is showing an increase in sales every year.
II. Samsung has recorded a fall in sales thrice dur-ing the given five-year period.
III. The percentage increase in the number of units sold from 1995 to 1999 is the
highest for Sony.
IV. The average annual sale of Samsung is more than that of Sony.
a. Ill alone
b. I and II
c. III and IV
d. III and II

135. 101 Problem
The installed capacity of each company is 75,000 units, and all the units produced
by each company are sold. Then, the least and the highest values for annual
capacity utilisation for any company are re-spectively
a. 16.67% and 66.67%
b. 17.5% and 72.5%
c. 14.28% and 75.5%
d. 5.24% and 95.34%.

136. 102 Problem
If for 2000, there is a 25% increase in the total sale of TVs and there is a 10%
decrease in the sale of Toshiba TVs, then what percentage of the total sales in
2000 is for Toshiba TVs?
a. 17%
b. 7.8%
c. 9.3%
d. 6.3%

137. 103 Problem
The brand, which showed a decrease of 50% during the given five-year period,
registered maxi-mum percentage decrease during the period:
a. 1995-96
b. 1996-97
c. 1997-98
d. 1998-99

138. Directions (Q104 to 108):
The following bar chart gives the production of cycles by three different
companies X, Y and Z for five different years. Study this chart to answer these
questions.

139. 104 Problem
Considering the production of each company sepa-rately, in how many instances
is the percentage in-crease in the production of cycles over the previous years'
production greater than 20%?
a. 4
b. 6
c. 5
d. 7

140. 105 Problem
The annual percentage increase in the total produc-tion of cycles from 1995 to
1999 was:
a. 24.08%
b. 23.12%
c. 22.64%
d. None of these

141. 106 Problem
In 1996, 15% of the rural population and 8% of the urban population used cycles
as their mode of trans-portation. If the total population in 1996 is 1.1 bil-lion,
then what is the rural population in millions? (Assume that one cycle is used by a
single person)(Also assume that the only companies mak-ing cycles are X, Y and Z.
There are no other cycle manufacturers in the country.
a. 600
b. 0.6
c. 500
d. 0.5

142. 107 Problem
If the ratio of the average cost to the customer of each cycle of the companies X,
Y and Z is 2 : 4 : 3, then what is the percentage increase in the total revenue of
the cycles produced in 1997 to 1999. (Assume that the cost of the cycle remained
the same)
a. 39.89%
b. 40.53%
c. 42.64%
d. 41.27%

143. 108 Problem
Over the five-year period, the percentage increase in production was maximum
for:
a. X
b. Y
c. Z
d. Cannot be determined

144. Directions (Q 109 to 113):
The following table gives the quarterly output of three production units of a
machine manufacturing company.
Year 1stQuarter 2nd Quarter 3rdQuarter 4thQuarter
Unit 123 123 2 3
1998 30 34 38 40 44 42
1999 34 45 42 52 54 56
2000 35 45 43 58 53 58
2001 54"58 57 76 77 79
2002 80 82 87 92 97 93

145. 109 Problem
Which of the following statements is correct?
a. The performance of Unit 1 has been lowest during the 5-year period.
b. The performance of Unit 2 has been the high-est during the 5-year period.
c. The performance of Unit 3 has been the lowest during the 5-year period.
d. The performance of Unit 2 has been lowest dur-ing the 5-year period.

146. 110 Problem
Incentives based on the production are given on quarterly basis. In which quarter
would the workers get maximum incentive?
a. 1stQuarter
b. 2nd Quarter
c. 3rd Quarter
d. 4th Quarter

147. 111 Problem
Which unit has shown the least growth in produc-tion during the period 1998-
2002?
a. Unit 1
b. Unit2
c. Unit 3
d. Cannot say

148. 112 Problem
During 1998-2002, the highest quarterly production has been achieved by
Unit…….. in the………Quarter of 2002.
a. 1,1st
b. 2, 2nd
c. 3, 3rd
d. 2, 4th

149. 113 Problem
The highest increase in the yearly average has been over the period
a. 1998-1999
b. 2001-2002
c. 1999-2000
d. 2000-2001

150. Directions (Q. 114 to 118):
The following table gives the frequency distribution of the final grades of 100
students in Mathematics and Physics. Analyze the data presented to answer
these questions.
Physics 40-49 50-59 60-69 70-79 80-89 90-99
Grades?
90-99 4 2 5
80-89 2 3 7 2
70-79 1 7 6 3
60-69 2 5 9 8 5
50-59 3 3 6 1
40-49 2 7 7

151. 114 Problem
How many students received grades 80 and above in Mathematics?
a. 20
b. 30
c. 23
d. 25

152. 115 Problem
How many students would qualify for admission to a prime Engineering College
that stipulates above 80% in Mathematics and Physics?
a. 9
b. 12
c. 16
d. 18

153. 116 Problem
The school Trust provides scholarships for higher studies to students who secure
90% and above in Mathematics and Physics. How many students are eligible for
scholarships for higher studies?
a. 5
b. 3
c. 7
d. 4

154. 117 Problem
What percentage of students got less than 70% in both Mathematics and
Physics?
a. 34
b. 44
c. 39
d. 47

155. 118 Problem
Pursuing graduation in Science stream requires a minimum of 50 percent in
Mathematics. How many students of this batch are disqualified to pursue
graduation in Science?
a. 7
b. 16
c. 21
d. 4

156. Directions (Q. 119 to 120):
The following table gives the Human Development Index (HDI). The HDI value is
between 0 and 1.
States 1981 1991 2001
Andhra Pradesh 0.298 0.377 0.416
Assam 0.272 0.348 0.386
Bihar 0.237 0.308 0.367
Gujarat 0.360 0.431 0.479
Haryana 0.360 0.433 0.509
Karnataka 0.346 0.412 0.478
Kerala 0.500 0.591 0.638
Madhya Pradesh 0.245 0.328 0.394
Maharashtra 0.363 0.452 0.523
Orissa 0.267 0.345 0.404
Punjab 0.411 0.475 0.537
Rajasthan 0.256 0.347 0.424
Tamil Nadu 0.343 0.466 0.531
Uttar Pradesh 0.255 0.314 0.388
West Bengal 0.305 0.404 0.472
All India 0.302 0.381 0.472

157. 119 Problem
Select the incorrect statement.
a. Kerala has consistently reported the highest HDI.
b. Bihar has consistently reported the worst HDI.
c. Assam has maintained stability in its compara-tive ranking among the
States.
d. Rajasthan has shown an improvement in its com-parative ranking among
other States.

158. 120 Problem
Which of the following States improved their HDI value in 2001 to match the all
India value?
a. Tamil Nadu
b. Orissa
c. Rajasthan
d. West Bengal

159. SECTION -D
INTELLIGENCE AND CRITICAL REASONING

160. Directions (Q 121 to 125):
In each of these questions there are two statements by two possible inferences
A and B. Assume the statements to be correct even if they vary with facts.
Choose your answer as
a. If only inference A follows.
b. If only inference B follows.
c. If both the inferences A and B follow
d. If neither inference A nor B follows

161. 121 Problem
All graduates are chairs. All chairs are tables.
A: All graduates are tables
B: Some inexperienced are students.

162. 122 Problem
Every minister is a student. Every student is inexpe-rienced.
A: Every minister is inexperienced.
B: Some inexperienced are students.

163. 123 Problem
Some birds are elephants. Some elephants are white.
A: Some birds are white
B: Some white are birds.

164. 124 Problem
No bat is ball. No ball is wicket.
A: No bat is wicket
B: All wickets are bats

165. 125 Problem
All fish are tortoise. No tortoise is a crocodile.
A: No crocodile is a fish
B: No fish is a crocodile

166. Directions (Q 126 to 129):
Each question consists of five statements A, B, C, D and E followed by 4 options
consisting of three statements put together in a specific order. Choose the option
which indicates a valid argument, i.e. where the third statement indicated in the
answer option is a conclusion drawn from the proceeding two statements.

167. 126 Problem
Oranges are not sweet.
Some oranges are sweet.
All sweets are tasty.
Some oranges are not tasty.
No orange is tasty
a. CEA
b. BDC
c. CBD
d. EAC

168. 127 Problem
A. MBA's are in great demand.
B. Sunil and Shobha are in great demand.
C. Sunil is in great demand.
D. Shobha is in great demand.
E. Sunil and shobha are in great demand.
a. ABE
b. ECD
c. AEB
d. EBA.

169. 128 Problem
A. Some towns in the world are polluted.
B. All polluted towns should be destroyed.
C. Town Lambusa should be destroyed.
D. Town Lambusa is polluted
E. Some towns in the world should be destroyed.
a. BDE
b. BAE
c. ADE
d. CDB.

170. 129 Problem
A. All heroines are pretty.
B. Some heroines are popular.
C. Sanjna is pretty.
D. Sanjna is a popular heroine.
E. Some popular girls are pretty.
a. ACD
b. ABE
c. DCA
d. EDC.

171. Directions: (Q 130 to 133):
In each of these questions, there are four words with the letters jumbled up.
Three of them are alike. Find the odd one Out.

172. 130 Problem
a. NITK
b. TIK
c. TIH
d. ITS

173. 131 Problem
a. LITYAQU
b. TITYUANQ
c. TEAUBY
d. TEDUCAED

174. 132 Problem
a. FIWE
b. DILHC
c. BUSHDNA
d. LAME

175. 133 Problem
a. CIRE
b. NAIR
c. LOUDSC
d. RNUTHDE

176. Directions (Q 134 to 137):
In each of these questions, four terms are given. While three of them are
identical in some way, one is different from the rest. Select the odd one as your
answer.

177. 134 Problem
a. 5 8 7 8
b. 6 4 8 2
c. 5 7 8 8
d. 9 7 4 8

178. 135 Problem
a. UNICEF
b. IMF
c. WHO
d. SAARC

179. 136 Problem
a. Hat
b. Bag
c. Purse
d. Basket

180. 137 Problem
a. T
b. Z
c. Q
d. H

181. Directions (Q138 to 140):
Each of these questions is based on the following passage.
Passage: If a person reads a lot, he will increase his vocabulary, In doing so, he
will increase his speak-ing and writing power.

182. 138 Problem
The argument is based on the assumption(s).
A: Strong vocabulary is important for writing and speaking
B: People should read books containing unfamiliar words.
C: The books to be read should be entraining
a. A only
b. B only
c. C only
d. A, Band C

183. 139 Problem
Which one of the following would weaken the argu-ment?
a. Educated people can express their thoughts bet-ter.
b. The style of a person is coloured by the style of the author he reads.
c. Only a well-read person can make proper use of the English language.
d. Those who passed vocabulary tests could not write well.

184. 140 Problem
Which of the following will strengthen the argument?
A: Slow readers cannot do well in competitive ex-aminations.
B: Every one must study in an English medium school.
C: In order to become a good speaker in English, one must increase one's
vocabulary.
a. A only
b. B only
c. C only
d. A and B only

185. Directions (Q 141 to 143):
Read the information given below to answer these questions.
Monica started moving from point B towards point A exactly an hour after Puran
started from A in the opposite direction but at a speed twice as much as that of
Puran. By the time Puran covered one-sixth of the distance between the points A
and B, Monica also covered the same distance,

186. 141 Problem
The point where Puran and Monica would meet is
a. Closer to A.
b. Exactly between A and B
c. Closer to B.
d. Monica and Puran will not meet at all.

187. 142 Problem
How many hours would Puran take to reach B?
a. 2
b. 5
c. 6
d. 12

188. 143 Problem
How many more hours would Puran take (compared to Monica) to complete the
journey?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7

189. Directions (Q 144 to 146):
Read the situation given below to answer these questions.
a, b, c, d, c, f, g, h and i are nine houses, c is 2 km east of b. a is 1 km north of b
and h is 2 km south of a. g is 1 km west of h while d is 3 km east of g and f is 2
km north of g. i is situated just in middle of b and c while e is just in middle of h
and d.

190. 144 Problem
The distance between e aroid is:
a. 4 km
b. 2 km
c. 1 km
d. 3 km

191. 145 Problem
Distance between and f is:
a. 1.41 km
b. 3 km
c. 2 km
d. 1 km

192. 146 Problem
Distance between e and g is:
a. 2 km
b. 1 km
c. 5 km
d. 1.5 km

193. Directions (Q 147 to 148):
Read the relationship given below to answer these questions.
Archana is elder than Suman. Arti is elder than Archana but younger than Kusum.
Kusum is elder than Suman. Suman is younger than Arti and Gita is the eldest.

194. 147 Problem
Who is the youngest?
a. Archana
b. Suman
c. Arti
d. Kusum

195. 148 Problem
Who is in the middle, age-wise?
a. Suman
b. Archana
c. Arti
d. Kusum

196. Directions (Q 149 to 150):
Read the following information to answer these questions.
The parents of a bride go to a jeweler to buy a diamond ring. The jeweler shows
them five different rings D, E, F, G and H. Differences in their prices are as under:
• Ring D costs twice as much as ring E.
• Ring E costs four and a half times as much as ring F
• Ring F costs half as much as ring G.
• Ring G costs half as much as ring H.
• Ring H costs less than ring D but more than ring F.

197. 149 Problem
Which of the following represents the prices of the rings in ascending order?
a. E, G, H, D and F
b. D, E, G, H and F
c. H, F, G, D and F.
d. F, G, H E and D

198. 150 Problem
If the parents want to buy two rings with the condi-tion that the price difference
between the two should be minimal, then which two rings qualify for this
condition?
a. E & F
b. G & H
c. H & E
d. D & E

199. 151 Problem
If A + B = C, D - C = A and E - B = C, then what does D + F stands for? Provide your
answer in let-ter terms as well as in number terms.
a. 1 and 10
b. A and 1
c. C and 3
d. Q and 17

200. 152 Problem
If PRATAP could be given the code number 1618120116, then what code number
can be given to Navin?
a. 73957614
b. 24649125
c. 14122914
d. 19274651

201. 153 Problem
Out of the total of 120 musicians in a club, 5 % can play all the three instruments:
guitar, violin and flute. It so happens that the number of musicians who can play
any two and only two of the above instruments is 30. The number of musicians
who can play the guitar alone is 40. What is the total number of those who can
play violin alone or flute alone?
a. 45
b. 44
c. 38
d. 30

202. 154 Problem
Seven men - A, B, C, D, E, F and G are standing in a queue in that order. Each one
is wearing a cap of different colour-violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and
red. D is able to see in front of him green, yellow, orange and red. D is able to see
in front of him green and blue, but not violet. E can see violet and yellow, but not
red. G can see caps of all the colours other than orange. If E is wearing an indigo
coloured cap, then the colour of the cap worn by F is
a. Blue
b. Violet
c. Red
d. Orange

203. 155 Problem
Among four friends, Senthil is twice the age of Karthik. Gopi is one and a half
times younger than Karthik. Bala is six years elder to Karthik, but six years
younger to Senthil. Who is the eldest?
a. Senthil
b. Karthik
c. Bala
d. Gopi

204. 156 Problem
Four bells begin to toll together and toll respectively at intervals of 6, 5, 7, 10 and
12 seconds. How many times they will toll together in one hour ex-cluding the
one at the start?
a. 7 times
b. 8-times
c. 9 limes
d. 11 times

205. 157 Problem
A, B, C, D. E and F are sitting around a round table. A is between E and F, E is
opposite D, and C is not in either of the neighboring seats of E. Who is opposite
to B?
a. F
b. C
c. D
d. None of these

206. 158 Problem
Donors are almost never offended by being asked for too much (in fact, they are
usually flattered). And if you ask for too retouch, your donor can always suggest a
smaller amount. On the other hand, do-nors are frequently offended by being
asked for too little. A common reaction is, "so that's all they think I'm worth.“
The above statement assumes that
a. Donors are usually never asked for enough
b. A good fund raiser will value the worth of the donor.
c. It is worth the gamble to ask for large donations
d. Fund raisers often think that the donors are in-capable of giving much.

207. 159 Problem
In 1950, the average child visited the dentist once a year. But in 1970, the
number of visits had increased to two. Today, the average child visits the dentist
three times a year. Each of the following, if true could explain this trend except
a. Dentist fees have declined over the period
b. Better home care of teeth has reduced the num-ber of cavities.
c. Parents are more aware of the importance of dental care.
d. Tax benefits for deducting dental expenses have increased.

208. 160 Problem
From a letter to the commercial editor of a news-paper: " Your article of January
9 drew attention to the large deficit in Playland's balance of payments that has
worsened over the past three years. Yet you favour the recent trade treaty signed
between Playland and Workland. That treaty results in low-ering of our import
duties that will flood us with Workland's goods. This will only exacerbate our
balance of trade. How can you be in favour of the treaty?"
Which of the following considerations would weaken the letter writer's
argument?
a. Import diversion versus import creation
b. Prices paid by importers versus prices paid by consumers.
c. Duties levied increase government revenue.
d. Free trade versus protectionism.

209. SECTION -E
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

210. 161 Problem
The largest public undertaking in India is
a. The Indian Railways
b. ONGC
c. BHEL
d. MTNL

211. 162 Problem
The gas leak at which company's plant in Bhopal had caused an environments
disaster?
a. Reliance Industries
b. Union Carbide
c. Enron
d. Indian Oil

212. 163 Problem
Which one of the following teams was not in the cricket super six league match of
the World Cup?
a. Sri Lanka
b. Zimbabwe
c. West Indies
d. New Zealand

213. 164 Problem
Leander Paes paired with whom to win the Austra-lian Open Tennis
Championship in 2003?
a. Martina Navratilova
b. Martina Hingis
c. Jennifer Capriati
d. Serena Williams.

214. 165 Problem
Which brand/company uses the ad line " We know India Better"?
a. Max New York Life Insurance
b. LIC of India
c. Amu I
d. Bajaj

215. 166 Problem
Ayush Ayurvedic health and beauty care products were launched by
a. Nestle
b. Danbury
c. HLL
d. Ponds

216. 167 Problem
Whose last reported words were "Don't worry. Relax!"?
a. Mahatma Gandhi
b. Indira Gandhi
c. Rajiv Gandhi
d. Sanjay Gandhi

217. 168 Problem
Which is India's largest Mutual Fund Organization?
a. GIS
b. SBI
c. Unit-Trust of India
d. ICICI

218. 169 Problem
Who is known as the Father of India's "White Revo-lution", a synonym for
cooperative milk sector and the brain behind Operation Flood?
a. J.B. Kripalani
b. Dr. Verghese Kurien
c. Baba Amte
d. Har Gobind Singh

219. 170 Problem
Which major US retail Chain has filed for Bank-ruptcy?
a. Marks & Spencer
b. Wal Mart
c. K Mart
d. Shoppers Stop

220. 171 Problem
To permit operations of private life insurance com-panies in India, Government of
India revised the In-surance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA) Acting
the year
a. 1999
b. 2002
c. 2000
d. 1998

221. 172 Problem
Which is the supersonic anti-ship cruise missile that has been successfully test-
fired by India from a warship in the Bay of Bengal?
a. Nag
b. BrahMos
c. Prithvi
d. Agni

222. 173 Problem
The slogan "Everyone's invited" is associated with which Korean Company?
a. Samsung
b. LG
c. Hyundai
d. Daewoo

223. 174 Problem
Soft drink brand 'Fanta' is owned by
a. Pepsi
b. Coca-Cola
c. Parle
d. Shaw Wallace

224. 175 Problem
"Pure for Sure" campaign has been launched by
a. Indian Oil
b. Bharat Petroleum
c. Hindustan Petroleum
d. Indo Burma Petroleum

225. 176 Problem
Parx, an apparel brand, is from
a. Bombay Dyeing
b. Raymond's
c. Mafatlal
d. Reliance Group

226. 177 Problem
Modern Foods was the first public sector company to be disinvested by the
Government of India. Which company acquired 74% equity stake in Modern
Foods in 2000 for Rs 104 crore?
a. Hindustan Lever Ltd
b. Nestle
c. Coca-cola
d. Pepsi

227. 178 Problem
The biggest and most expensive Indian Satellite________ has been launched
successfully from space centre Kourou in April 2003.
a. INSAT — 2B
b. INSAT - 3A
c. INSAT-3B
d. None of these

228. 179 Problem
The empowered committee of the State Finance Min-isters has agreed to
implement the new tax regime of Value Added Tax (VAT) in sixteen states by
June 1,2003 instead of the original deadline of
a. January 1,2003
b. April 1,2002
c. June 1,2002
d. April 1,2003

229. 180 Problem
In radio transmission, what does FM stand for?
a. Frequent Modulation
b. Frequency Moderation
c. Frequency Monitoring
d. Frequency Modulation.

230. 181 Problem
Who is the appointing authority of the Chief Elec-t/on Commissioner?
a. Parliament
b. President
c. Prime minister
d. Electoral College

231. 182 Problem
What does the acronym CTBT stand for?
a. Continued Test Ban Treaty
b. Commercial Test Based Tariff
c. Continue Test Based Treatment
d. Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty

232. 183 Problem
Bappi Lahiri won a case of plagiarism against which US based singer?
a. P.M. Dawn
b. Dr. Dre
c. L.L.CollJ
d. Jeniffer Lopez

233. 184 Problem
Which public sector telecom company undertaking was bought by the TATA group
during the recent disinvestment process?
a. BSNL
b. MTNL.
c. VSNL
d. Punjab Telecom

234. 185 Problem
Which one of the following is NOT a key policy development in Indian telecom
sector?
a. The international long distance business was opened up for unrestricted entry
b. The monopoly of VSNL over International Long Distance (ILD) service was
ended and VSNL was privatized.
c. Large number of villages covered through wire- » less in Local Loop (WLL)
d. Radio Frequency Spectrum allocation is being done away with

235. 186 Problem
Which major industrial group has entered into an agreement with the Punjab
government for a major crop diversification programme?
a. Mahindra & Mahindra
b. Tata
c. Cargill Foods
d. Kellogs

236. 187 Problem
Which company is associated with the campaign - What's your Moto?
a. Microsoft
b. Motorola
c. Leo Mattel
d. Nokia

237. 188 Problem
Which soft drinks group launched Mountain Dew in the Indian market?
a. Pepsi
b. Coca-cola
c. Parle
d. Dukes

238. 189 Problem
Which group owns the Aqua guard water purifiers?
a. TATA
b. Birla
c. Reliance
d. SP1C

239. 190 Problem
Which newspaper has the motto journalism of Cour-age?
a. The Hindustan Times
b. The Washington Post
c. The Indian Express
d. The Guardian

240. 191 Problem
Jaswant Singh's budget brought about some changes in the individual tax
policy. Which of the following is taxable under the Indian tax laws for the year
2003-2004?
a. Long Term Capital Gains
b. Interest on Housing Loan
c. Dividends
d. Banks & Small Savings Interests

241. 192 Problem
What does CDMA stand for?
a. Code Division Multiple Access
b. Code Division Mobile Access.
c. Code Division Multiple Application
d. Code Division Mobile Application

242. 193 Problem
What brand is associated with the campaign - Made for Each Other?
a. Charms
b. Wills Navy Cut
c. India Kings
d. Gold Flake

243. 194 Problem
What is common to the following - Pantaloons, Lifestyle, Stopper's Stop and
Westside?
a. They are all owned by the TATA group.
b. HDFC has bought a stake in each of these operations.
c. They are leaders in the retail store business.
d. They are authorized dealers for Khadi Gram Udyog.

244. 195 Problem
Rubber in India is cultivated mainly in
a. Andhra Pradesh
b. Assam
c. Kerala
d. Karnataka

245. 196 Problem
Which car launched recently has the baseline "Spoil Yourself'?
a. Pal io Adventure
b. Opel Swing
c. Skoda
d. Indigo

246. 197 Problem
Which IT company has developed Finacle Core-a banking software product?
a. Wipro
b. Satyam
c. Infosys
d. Iflex

247. 198 Problem
The Indian Railways is one of the largest railway systems with an extensive
network of over 63,000 route kilometers. Approximately of the net-work is
electrified.
a. 50%
b. 25%
c. 45%
d. 60%

248. 199 Problem
Which Indian business family owns the brand 'Hero Cycles' - the largest
manufacturers of cycles in the world?
a. Jindal
b. Munjal
c. Ambani
d. Lohia

249. 200 Problem
The Album of the Year" category Grammy Award in the 45th Annual Grammy
Awards has been won by
a. Anoshka Shankar Pandit
b. Norah Jones
c. Bruce Springsteen
d. Britney Spears

250. FOR SOLUTION VISIT WWW.VASISTA.NET