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TIME: 30 MINS; MARKS: 30; DATE: 03.06.23
1 . Which of the following organs is innervated only by
parasympathetic nerves:
A. Iris muscles
B. Ciliary muscle
C. Sweat glands
D. Splenic capsule
2. The sympathetic and parasympathetic systems exert
functionally opposite influences on the following
parameters except:
A. Heart rate
B. Atrial refractory period
C. Pupil diameter
D. Intestinal motility
3 . Tetrodotoxin blocks nerve impulse/junctional
transmission by:
A. Anticholinergic action
B. Depleting acetylcholine
C. Blocking Na+ channels
D. Blocking Ca2+ channels
4. Muscarinic cholinergic receptors:
A. Are located only on parasympathetically innervated effector cells
B. Mediate responses by opening an intrinsic Na+ ion channel
C. Are present on vascular endothelium which has no cholinergic
nerve supply
D. Predominate in the autonomic ganglia
5. The cardiac muscarinic receptors:
A. Are of the M1 subtype
B. Are of the M2 subtype
C. Are selectively blocked by pirenzepine
D. Function through the PIP2 → IP3/DAG pathway
6. The following inhibitor binds only to the ani-onic site of
the cholinesterase enzyme:
A. Neostigmine
B. Physostigmine
C. Edrophonium
D. Dyflos
7. The organophosphates produce irreversible inhibition
of cholinesterase because:
A. They bind to an allosteric site of the enzyme resulting in
unfavourable conformation of esterati site to bind acetylcholine
B. Regeneration time of the phosphorylated enzyme is longer than
the turnover time of the enzyme molecules
C. Phosphorylation results in rapid degradation of enzyme
molecules
D. They are neither metabolized nor excreted from the body
8. Out of two anticholinesterases, drug ‘X’ is a tertiary amine
while drug ‘Y’ is a quarternary ammonium ompound.
Then:
A. Drug ‘X’ is likely to be more potent than ‘Y’
B. Drug ‘X’ will be more suitable to be used as a miotic
C. Drug ‘Y’ will be completely metabolized in the body
D. Drug ‘Y’ will produce CNS effects
9. Neostigmine is preferred over physostigmine for treating
myasthenia gravis because:
A. It is better absorbed orally
B. It has longer duration of action
C. It has additional direct agonistic action on nicotinic
receptors at the muscle end plate
D. It penetrates blood-brain barrier
10. The mechanism by which neostigmine improves
contraction of myasthenic muscle involves:
A. Repetitive binding of the acetylcholine molecules to the
same receptors at the muscle endplate
B. Diffusion of acetylcholine released from motor nerve
endings to a wider area activating neighbouring receptors
C. Activation of motor end-plate receptors by neostigmine
molecules themselves
D. All of the above
11. Edrophonium is more suitable for differentiating
myasthenic crisis from cholinergic crisis because of its:
A. Shorter duration of action
B. Longer duration of action
C. Direct action on muscle end-plate
D. Selective inhibition of true cholinesterase
12. Which of the following is a relatively cerebroselective
anticholinesterase found to afford symptomatic
improvement in Alzheimer's disease:
A. Donepezil
B. Gemfibrozil
C. Pyridostigmine
D. Pyritinol
13. To be used as a topically applied ocular beta blocker a
drug should have the following properties except:
A. Strong local anaesthetic activity
B. High lipophilicity
C. High ocular capture
D. Low systemic activity
14. The following is an ĂĄ2 adrenergic agonist used as
eyedrops to lower intraocular pressure:
A. Brinzolamide
B. Bambuterol
C. Brimonidine
D. Latanoprost
15. Which of the following is a prodrug of adrenaline used
topically in glaucoma:
A. Brimonidine
B. Dipivefrine
C. Phenylpropanolamine
D. Dorzolamide
16. Apraclonidine is a clonidine congener which is used:
A. To suppress opioid withdrawal syndrome
B. To suppress menopausal syndrome
C. As Analgesic
D. To reduce intraocular tension
17. Dorzolamide is a:
A. Topically applied ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
B. Second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemic
C. Topical sulfonamide antibacterial
D. Luminal amoebicide
18. Choose the correct statement about latanoprost:
A. It is a PGF2ĂĄ derivative used in glaucoma
B. It is a selective ĂĄ1 blocker used in benign hypertrophy of
prostate
C. It is a 5-ĂĄ-reductase inhibitor used to reduce the size of
enlarged prostate gland
D. It is a PGE2 analogue used intravaginally for cervical
priming
19. Select the diuretic that is most effective in acute
congestive glaucoma:
A. Indapamide
B. Amiloride
C. Mannitol
D. Furosemide
20. Neostigmine is beneficial in cobra envenomation
because:
A. It binds to and inactivates cobra toxin
B. It reverses coma due to cobra toxin
C. It counteracts the cardio-depressant action of cobra toxin
D. It antagonizes the paralysing action of cobra toxin
21. A suspected case of poisoning has been brought to the
casualty with weakness, fainting, involuntary passage
of urine and stools, profuse sweating, salivation,
watering from nose and eyes. His pulse is 120/min, low
volume, BP 90/60 mm Hg, respiration shallow, pupil
constricted, muscles flabby with occasional fasciculations.
Which is the most likely type of poisoning:
A. Belladonna
B. Barbiturate
C. Anticholinesterase
D. Dicophane (DDT)
22. Which is the most important drug in the treatment of
organophosphate poisoning:
A. Atropine sulfate
B. Pralidoxime
C. Diazepam
D. Adrenaline
23. Atropine does not antagonise the following feature of
anticholinesterase poisoning:
A. Hypotension
B. Central excitation
C. Muscle paralysis
D. Bronchoconstriction
24. Pralidoxime can reactivate cholinesterase enzyme
that has been inactivated by:
A. Carbamate anticholinesterases
B. Organophosphate anticholinesterases
C. Both carbamate and organophosphate ticholinesterases
D. Reversible anticholinesterases
25. Atropine produces the following actions except:
A. Tachycardia
B. Mydriasis
C. Dryness of mouth
D. Urinary incontinence
26. The organ most sensitive to actions of atropine is:
A. Gastric glands
B. Salivary glands
C. Urinary bladder muscle
D. Heart
27. The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are
preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/
antispasmodic indications because:
A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity
B. They are incompletely absorbed after oral administration
C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects
D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine
28. Inhaled ipratropium bromide has the following
advantages except:
A. It does not alter respiratory secretions
B. It does not depress airway mucociliary clearance
C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled
salbutamol
D. It only rarely produces systemic side effects
29. Which of the following anticholinergic drugs is primarily
used in preanaesthetic medication and during surgery:
A. Glycopyrrolate
B. Pipenzolate methyl bromide
C. Isopropamide
D. Dicyclomine
30. Children are more susceptible than adults to the
following action of atropine:
A. Tachycardia producing
B. Cycloplegic
C. Gastric antisecretory
D. Central excitant and hyperthermic
THANK
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MCQ ANS 30.pptx

  • 1. TIME: 30 MINS; MARKS: 30; DATE: 03.06.23
  • 2. 1 . Which of the following organs is innervated only by parasympathetic nerves: A. Iris muscles B. Ciliary muscle C. Sweat glands D. Splenic capsule
  • 3. 2. The sympathetic and parasympathetic systems exert functionally opposite influences on the following parameters except: A. Heart rate B. Atrial refractory period C. Pupil diameter D. Intestinal motility
  • 4. 3 . Tetrodotoxin blocks nerve impulse/junctional transmission by: A. Anticholinergic action B. Depleting acetylcholine C. Blocking Na+ channels D. Blocking Ca2+ channels
  • 5. 4. Muscarinic cholinergic receptors: A. Are located only on parasympathetically innervated effector cells B. Mediate responses by opening an intrinsic Na+ ion channel C. Are present on vascular endothelium which has no cholinergic nerve supply D. Predominate in the autonomic ganglia
  • 6. 5. The cardiac muscarinic receptors: A. Are of the M1 subtype B. Are of the M2 subtype C. Are selectively blocked by pirenzepine D. Function through the PIP2 → IP3/DAG pathway
  • 7. 6. The following inhibitor binds only to the ani-onic site of the cholinesterase enzyme: A. Neostigmine B. Physostigmine C. Edrophonium D. Dyflos
  • 8. 7. The organophosphates produce irreversible inhibition of cholinesterase because: A. They bind to an allosteric site of the enzyme resulting in unfavourable conformation of esterati site to bind acetylcholine B. Regeneration time of the phosphorylated enzyme is longer than the turnover time of the enzyme molecules C. Phosphorylation results in rapid degradation of enzyme molecules D. They are neither metabolized nor excreted from the body
  • 9. 8. Out of two anticholinesterases, drug ‘X’ is a tertiary amine while drug ‘Y’ is a quarternary ammonium ompound. Then: A. Drug ‘X’ is likely to be more potent than ‘Y’ B. Drug ‘X’ will be more suitable to be used as a miotic C. Drug ‘Y’ will be completely metabolized in the body D. Drug ‘Y’ will produce CNS effects
  • 10. 9. Neostigmine is preferred over physostigmine for treating myasthenia gravis because: A. It is better absorbed orally B. It has longer duration of action C. It has additional direct agonistic action on nicotinic receptors at the muscle end plate D. It penetrates blood-brain barrier
  • 11. 10. The mechanism by which neostigmine improves contraction of myasthenic muscle involves: A. Repetitive binding of the acetylcholine molecules to the same receptors at the muscle endplate B. Diffusion of acetylcholine released from motor nerve endings to a wider area activating neighbouring receptors C. Activation of motor end-plate receptors by neostigmine molecules themselves D. All of the above
  • 12. 11. Edrophonium is more suitable for differentiating myasthenic crisis from cholinergic crisis because of its: A. Shorter duration of action B. Longer duration of action C. Direct action on muscle end-plate D. Selective inhibition of true cholinesterase
  • 13. 12. Which of the following is a relatively cerebroselective anticholinesterase found to afford symptomatic improvement in Alzheimer's disease: A. Donepezil B. Gemfibrozil C. Pyridostigmine D. Pyritinol
  • 14. 13. To be used as a topically applied ocular beta blocker a drug should have the following properties except: A. Strong local anaesthetic activity B. High lipophilicity C. High ocular capture D. Low systemic activity
  • 15. 14. The following is an ĂĄ2 adrenergic agonist used as eyedrops to lower intraocular pressure: A. Brinzolamide B. Bambuterol C. Brimonidine D. Latanoprost
  • 16. 15. Which of the following is a prodrug of adrenaline used topically in glaucoma: A. Brimonidine B. Dipivefrine C. Phenylpropanolamine D. Dorzolamide
  • 17. 16. Apraclonidine is a clonidine congener which is used: A. To suppress opioid withdrawal syndrome B. To suppress menopausal syndrome C. As Analgesic D. To reduce intraocular tension
  • 18. 17. Dorzolamide is a: A. Topically applied ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor B. Second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemic C. Topical sulfonamide antibacterial D. Luminal amoebicide
  • 19. 18. Choose the correct statement about latanoprost: A. It is a PGF2ĂĄ derivative used in glaucoma B. It is a selective ĂĄ1 blocker used in benign hypertrophy of prostate C. It is a 5-ĂĄ-reductase inhibitor used to reduce the size of enlarged prostate gland D. It is a PGE2 analogue used intravaginally for cervical priming
  • 20. 19. Select the diuretic that is most effective in acute congestive glaucoma: A. Indapamide B. Amiloride C. Mannitol D. Furosemide
  • 21. 20. Neostigmine is beneficial in cobra envenomation because: A. It binds to and inactivates cobra toxin B. It reverses coma due to cobra toxin C. It counteracts the cardio-depressant action of cobra toxin D. It antagonizes the paralysing action of cobra toxin
  • 22. 21. A suspected case of poisoning has been brought to the casualty with weakness, fainting, involuntary passage of urine and stools, profuse sweating, salivation, watering from nose and eyes. His pulse is 120/min, low volume, BP 90/60 mm Hg, respiration shallow, pupil constricted, muscles flabby with occasional fasciculations. Which is the most likely type of poisoning: A. Belladonna B. Barbiturate C. Anticholinesterase D. Dicophane (DDT)
  • 23. 22. Which is the most important drug in the treatment of organophosphate poisoning: A. Atropine sulfate B. Pralidoxime C. Diazepam D. Adrenaline
  • 24. 23. Atropine does not antagonise the following feature of anticholinesterase poisoning: A. Hypotension B. Central excitation C. Muscle paralysis D. Bronchoconstriction
  • 25. 24. Pralidoxime can reactivate cholinesterase enzyme that has been inactivated by: A. Carbamate anticholinesterases B. Organophosphate anticholinesterases C. Both carbamate and organophosphate ticholinesterases D. Reversible anticholinesterases
  • 26. 25. Atropine produces the following actions except: A. Tachycardia B. Mydriasis C. Dryness of mouth D. Urinary incontinence
  • 27. 26. The organ most sensitive to actions of atropine is: A. Gastric glands B. Salivary glands C. Urinary bladder muscle D. Heart
  • 28. 27. The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are incompletely absorbed after oral administration C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine
  • 29. 28. Inhaled ipratropium bromide has the following advantages except: A. It does not alter respiratory secretions B. It does not depress airway mucociliary clearance C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol D. It only rarely produces systemic side effects
  • 30. 29. Which of the following anticholinergic drugs is primarily used in preanaesthetic medication and during surgery: A. Glycopyrrolate B. Pipenzolate methyl bromide C. Isopropamide D. Dicyclomine
  • 31. 30. Children are more susceptible than adults to the following action of atropine: A. Tachycardia producing B. Cycloplegic C. Gastric antisecretory D. Central excitant and hyperthermic