This document contains 73 multiple choice questions about contact infections. The questions cover topics like hepatitis viruses, rabies, tetanus, leprosy, HIV/AIDS, and other sexually transmitted infections. Correct answers are provided for each question to test knowledge about the infectious agents, modes of transmission, clinical presentations, treatment, and prevention of various contact infections.

1. MCQS on CONTACT INFECTIONS
By Noha Hesham
Under supervision of
Prof Dr Mona Aboserea
FACULTY OF MEDICINE
ZAGAZIG UNIVERSITY
1- Which of the following is not transmitted through sexual route?
(a) Hepatitis A
(b) Hepatitis E
(c) Both Hepatitis A and Hepatitis E
(d) Hepatitis D
2- Marker for infectivity of serum in Hepatitis B is:
(a) HBsAg
(b) Anti HBc
(c) HBe Ag
(d) Anti HBc

2. 3- Which of the Hepatitis B Virus serological marker indicates the first evidence of
Hepatitis B infection?
(a) Anti-HBs
(b) Anti-HBc
(c) HBeAg
(d) HBsAg
4- All of the following is true about HCV screening except:
(a) Medical students are screened before their joining
(b) IV drug abuser are prone to infection
(c) Blood products takenbefore 1997 should be screened
(d) Long term hemodialysis
(e) Interferon is treatment
5- Which of the following is/are seen in Acute Hepatitis-B?
(a) HBsAg
(b) Anti-HBs
(c) Anti-HBc
(d) HBeAg
(e) Anti-HBe
6- Both HBsAg and HBeAg are positive in:
(a) Acute infectious hepatitis B
(b) Chronic Hepatitis B
(c) Recovery phase of Hepatitis B
(d) Individuals vaccinated with Hepatitis B
7- Acute Hepatitis B marker(s) is/ are all except:
(a) HBsAg (b) Anti HBs

3. (c) Anti HBc
(d) HBeAg
(e) Anti HBe
8- A mother is HBsAg positive at 32 weeks of pregnancy.
What should be given to the newborn to prevent
neonatal infection?
(a) Hepatitis B vaccine + Immunoglobulin
(b) Immunoglobulin only
(c) Hepatitis B vaccine only
(d) Immunoglobulin followed by vaccine 1 month later
9- Most important in diagnosing Acute Hepatitis B is:
(a) IgG Anti-HBc
(b) IgM Anti-HBc
(c) Anti HBs
(d) HBsAg
10- A nurse was diagnosed to have HBeAg and HBsAg in serum. Most likely she
is having
(a) Chronic hepatitis B
(b) HBV + HBE coinfection
(c) Active and infectious Hepatitis B disease
(d) Recovery from Hepatitis B
11- Epidemiological marker of Hepatitis – B is:
(a) HBs Ag
(b) Anti - HBs
(c) Anti HBc
(d) HBe Ag

4. 12- Chances of Viral Hepatitis Type C becoming a chronic infection are:
(a) 10%
(b) 20%
(c) 30%
(d) 50% or more
13- Pre-exposure prophylaxis for Rabies is given on:
(a) Days 0, 3, 7, 14, 28, 90
(b) Days 0, 3, 7, 28, 90
(c) Days 0, 3
(d) Days 0, 7, 28
14- Class II exposure in animal bites includes the following:
(a) Scratches without oozing of blood
(b) Licks on a fresh wound
(c) Scratch with oozing of blood on palm
(d) Bites from wild animals
15- Forthe treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct
except:
(a) Give Immunoglobulins for passive immunity
(b) Give ARV
(c) Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
(d) Immediately wash wound with soap and water
16- Which of the following statements about rabies is true?
(a) Convulsions are generally not seen in a patient with rabies
(b) Presence of meningitis suggests against the diagnosis of rabies
(c) Intracytoplasmic basophilic inclusion bodies are seenin brain cells

5. (d) Incubation period is approximately 20 to 80 days
17- Which of the following should be injected in and around the wound in class III
rabies bite?
(a) Tetanus toxoid
(b) Antibiotic solution
(c) Anti rabies serum
(d) None of the above
18- Bite of which of the following animals do not result in human rabies?
(a) Dog
(b) Mouse
(c) Horse
(d) Cat
19-. Characteristic features of Rabies include all except:
(a) Can manifest as ascending paralysis
(b) Hematogenous spreadto brain
(c) Can be transmitted by bites other than dogs also
(d) In invariably fatal
20- Number of doses ofRabies HDCV vaccine required for pre-exposure
prophylaxis:
(a) 5
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 1
21- Which virus is used to producerabies vaccine?
(a) Wild
(b) Street

6. (c) Fixed
(d) Live Attenuated
22- Intermediate hostof Rabies is :
(a) Man
(b) Dog
(c) Cow
(d) Rat
23- All these Rabies vaccines are commercially available Except:
(a) Killed sheep brain
(b) Human diploid vaccine
(c) Vero-continuous cell vaccine
(d) Recombinant glycoproteinvaccine
24- A patients present with dogs bite in the palm fingers and oozing of blood on
the neck regions, belongs to which class of the exposures:
(a) Class I
(b) Class II
(c) Class III
(d) None
25- All are true about rabies except:
(a) It is a DNA virus
(b) Vaccine virus has fixed incubation period
(c) Incubation period depends upon site of bite
(d) All bites on fingers with laceration are class III injuries
26- In the case of dog bite the biting animal should be observed for at least:
(a) 5 days
(b) 10 days

7. (c) 15 days
(d) 3 weeks
27- A personhas received complete immunization against tetanus 10 years ago,
now he presents with a clean wound without any lacerations from an injury
sustained 3 hours ago. He should now be given
(a) Full course of tetanus toxoid [AIPGME 01]
(b) Single dose of tetanus toxoid
(c) Human tetanus globulin
(d) Human tetanus globulin and single doseof toxoid
28- All the following are done to prevent tetanus neonatorum except:
(a) Two TT doses to all pregnant women
(b) TT to all females in reproductive age group
(c) TT to all newborns
(d) Injection penicillin to all neonates
29- Three doses oftetanus vaccine provide immunity for:
(a) 1 year
(b) 5 years
(c) 10 years
(d) 15 years
30- All of the following statements are true about Clostridium tetani infection
except:
(a) Main reservoir is soil, animal intestine and human intestine
(b) Main mode of transmission is through trauma and contaminated wound
(c) Herd immunity does not have much value
(d) Seen commonly in winter and dry climate
31- All are true regarding Clostridium tetani infection except:

8. (a) Incubation period 6-10 days
(b) 3 primary doses of vaccine required for full protection
(c) Man-to-man transmission
(d) Produces heat-resistant spores
32- An adult, previously unimmunized against Tetanus presents with a clean non-
penetrating wound sustained 2 hours previously. What tetanus prophylaxis is
advised?
(a) Only through cleaning of wound
(b) Tetanus toxoid 1 dose
(c) Tetanus toxoid complete course
(d) Tetanus toxoid complete course+ human tetanus immunoglobulin
33-True about Tetanus is all except:
(a) Tetanus protection 5 years if previously immunized
(b) Herd immunity present
(c) Can’t be eradicated
(d) Elimination is less than 1 case per 1000 births
34- To achieve neonatal tetanus elimination, incidence of neonatal tetanus per
1000 live births should be reduced to less than:
(a) 0.1
(b) 0.5
(c) 10
(d) 1
35- The period of communicability of Tetanus is:
(a) 7 days
(b) 14 days
(c) 21 days

9. (d) None
36- A personhad clean non-penetrating wound four hours back. He had a complete
courseof toxoid eleven years ago. What treatment is recommended?
(a) No toxoid is required
(b) Toxoid one dose
(c) Toxoid complete course
(d) Toxoid complete course+Human tetanus Ig
37- In Tetanus communicable period is:
(a) 7 days
(b) 10 days
(c) 14 days
(d) None
38-False about Leprosy is:
(a) It has been eliminated from India
(b) It can be transmitted through breast milk
(c) Lepromin Test is not a diagnostic test
(d) MDT is contraindicatedduring pregnancy
39-Leprosy can be transmitted through all except:
(a) Mother to child
(b) Breast milk
(c) Insect vectors
(d) Tattooing needles
(e) none of the above
40- In the management of leprosy, Lepromin test is most useful for:
(a) Herd Immunity
(b) Prognosis

10. (c) Treatment
(d) Epidemiological investigations
41- Which of the following statements about lepromin test is not true?
(a) It is negative in most children in first 6 months of
life
(b) It is a diagnostic test
(c) It is an important aid to classify type of leprosy disease
(d) BCG vaccination may convert lepromin reaction from negative to positive
42- A patient with leprosy had slightly erythematous, anesthetic plaques on the
trunk and upper limbs. He was treated with paucibacillary multidrug therapy (PB-
MDT) for 6 months. At the end of 6 months, he had persistent erythema and
induration in the plaque. The next step of action recommended by the World
Health Organization (WHO) in sucha patient is:
(a) Stop anti-leprosy treatment
(b) Continue PB-MDT till erythema subsides
(c) Biopsy the lesion to document activity
(d) Continue Dapsone alone for another 6 months
43- All of the following are the mode of transmission of leprosy except:
(a) Breast milk (b) Insect bite
(c) Transplacental spread
(d) Droplet infection
(e) none of the above
44- All of the following statements about leprosy are true except:
(a) Multibacillary leprosy is diagnosed when there are more than 5 skin patches
(b) New case detection rate is an indicator for incidence of leprosy
(c) A defaulter is defined as a patient who has not taken treatment for 6
months or more

11. (d) The target for elimination of leprosy is to reduce the prevalence to less than 1
per 10,000 population
45- Erythema NodosumLeprosum (ENL) occurs:
(a) Due to Lepromin test reaction
(b) In those with tuberculoid leprosy
(c) As a reaction to multi drug therapy
(d) In those with lepromatous leprosy
46- Leprosyis not yet eradicated because:
(a) No effective vaccine
(b) Highly infectious but low pathogenicity
(c) Only humans are reservoir
(d) Long incubation period
47-“Multibacillary” is a spectrum of disease, seen in:
(a) Leprosy
(b) TB
(c) Tetanus
(d) Trachoma
48- Leprosycommonly spreads by:
(a) Milk
(b) Droplet
(c) Water
(d) Mosquitoes
49- In multi-bacillary leprosy, the follow up examination after adequate Rx should
be done yearly for:
(a) 3 years
(b) 5 years

12. (c) 10 year
s (d) 2 years
50- Most common nerve involved in leprosy:
(a) Ulnar N
(b) Common peroneal N
(c) Median N
(d) Radial N
51- Treatment of leprosy a/c to WHO is done by all drugs, except:
(a) Dapsone
(b) Clofazimine
(c) Ciprofloxacin
(d) Rifampicin
52- In paucibacillary leprosy the single drug dapsoneis continue for:
(a) 9 days
(b) 90 days
(c) 180 days
(d) 10 days
53- Lepromin test is used for all the following Except:
(a) It determines the type of leprosy
(b) It confirms diagnosis of leprosy
(c) It monitors leprosy patients is treatment with
chemotherapy
(d) It evaluates hostresistance to leprosy
54- Duration of MDT (Multidrug Therapy) to resolve paucibacillary leprosy is:
(a) 6 months

13. (b) 8 months
(c) 9 months
(d) 12 months
55- Major signs for AIDS casedefinition according to WHO are all except:
(a) Generalized lymphadenopathy
(b) Prolonged fever more than 1 month
(c) Prolongedcoughfor > 1 month
(d) Chronic diarrhea > 1 month
(e) Weight loss > 10%
56- Risk of mother to child HIV transmission in pregnant woman at the time of
delivery, and after delivery in non-breast-feeding woman is:
(a) 5-10%
(b) 10-15%
(c) 15-30%
(d) More than 50%
57- HIV postexposure prophylaxis should be started within:
(a) 24 hours
(b) 48 hours
(c) 72 hours
(d) 6 hours
58- HIV transmission Mother to child can be stopped byall except:
(a) Caesarean section
(b) Vitamin A supplementation
(c) Stopping Breast feeding
(d) Zidovudine to mother antenatal and newborn after delivery

14. 59- Antiretroviral prophylaxis decrease the chance of transmission of HIV to fetus
during pregnancy of HIV to fetus during pregnancy by
(a) 35%
(b) 45%
(c) 50%
(d) 65%
60- About epidemiology of AIDS all are true except:
(a) In India it is mainly caused by HIV-1
(b) Maternofetaltransmissionis the most common mode of transmission
(c) I.V. drug abuse increases the risk
(d) Medical personnel are at higher risk of getting infection with HIV
61- All the following statements art true for the viral genome in HIV, Except:
(a) They are diploid
(b) They consistofDNA dependent DNA polymerase activity
(c) They consist of three major genes-gag, pol and env characteristic of all
retroviruses
(d) They are most complex of human retroviruses
62- Most common mode of HIV transmission from mother to child:
(a) 1st trimester
(b) 2nd transmission
(c) Perinatal
(d) Breastfeeding
63- Lymphogranuloma venereum is caused by:
(a) Hemophilus ducreyi
(b) Calymmotabacterium granulomatis

15. (c) Treponema pertenue
(d) Chlamydia trachomatis
64- All the following are causative agents of sexually transmitted infections
except:
(a) Candida
(b) Group B streptococcus
(c) Hepatitis B
(d) Echinococcus
65- Which of the following is not a STD agent?
(a) Ureaplasma urealyticum
(b) Gp. B Streptococcus
(c) Candida albicans
(d) Chlamydia psittaci
66- Incubation period of syphilis:
(a) 9-90 days
(b) 9-18 days
(c) 80-90 days
(d) 10 days
67- Incubation period of chancroid is:
(a) Less than 7 days
(b) 10-15 days
(c) 2-3 weeks
(d) 3-4 week
68- All of the following are blood-borneinfections except:

16. (a) Hepatitis B
(b) Hepatitis C
(c) Hepatitis E
(d) Hepatitis G
69- Postexposureprophylaxis in health care professional is indicated in infections
with all except:
(a) HBV
(b) Rabies
(c) Diphtheria
(d) Measles
(e) Tetanus
70- Animal to man transmission seen in:
(a) Rabies
(b) HIV
(c) Mumps
(d) Tetanus
71-. Zoonotic disease of viral etiology include:
(a) Q fever
(b) Rickettsiae disease
(c) Rabies
(d) Rubella
72- Prophylaxis for anthrax:
(a) Erythromycin
(b) Doxycycline
(c) Penicillin
(d) Vancomycin

17. 73- Transplacental transmission is not seen in
(a) Hepatitis A
(b) Hepatitis B
(c) HIV
(d) Varicella
74- Man is dead end for:
(a) Tetanus, measles
(b) Measles, yellow fever
(c) Tetanus, yellow fever
(d) Rabies, tetanus
75- The following fall under the category of enzootic except:
(a) Influenza
(b) Anthrax
(c) Brucellosis
(d) Endemic typhus
76- All are zoonotic disease Except:
(a) Brucellosis
(b) Leptospirosis
(c) Scabies
(d) Rabies
77- Man is a dead-end hostin all of the following infections Except:
(a) Teniasis
(b) Rabies
(c) Japanese encephalitis
(d) Tetanus