School of Undergraduate Studies Social, Behavioral, Math.docx

School of Undergraduate Studies
Social, Behavioral, Mathematical, and Natural Sciences
FINAL EXAMINATION
INSTRUCTOR NAME: Kelly Austin
COURSE NAME: Introduction to Biology BIO 103
SECTION NUMBER: 6387
DUE DATE: Sunday, March 9, 2014, 11:59 PM
SUBMIT completed ANSWER SHEET to Assignment Folder
Final Exam
SUBMIT Essay Answers to Turnitin.com
IMPORTANT: STUDENT PLEASE ANSWER ALL
QUESTIONS IN THE ANSWER
SHEET DOCUMENT AND SUBMIT THE ANSWER SHEET TO
YOUR
ASSIGNMENTS FOLDER. FOLLOW ALL INSTRUCTIONS
CAREFULLY.
DO **NOT**SUBMIT THIS TEST DOCUMENT FILE TO
YOUR INSTRUCTOR.
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS: This final examination is worth
200 points. There
are 6 sections: Multiple choice (57 points), Fill-in-the-blank (15

points),
Matching, (24 points), Short answer (24 points), Essay (80
points) and Bonus
point (10 points) sections. Read all instructions carefully.
*Do not leave any required questions blank. Make your best
guesses.*
**When answering questions for all sections, use the
accompanying Answer Sheet.
Submit the Answer Sheet document to your Assignment Folder
on or before the due
date.**
Page 1 of 23 © UMUC ALL RIGHTS RESERVED
MULTIPLE CHOICE SECTION INSTRUCTIONS: Read all
instructions carefully.
Please answer all questions. Each question is worth 1 point. The
Multiple
Choice section is worth 57 points.

**Do not enter your answers here.** Type in the letter you
select as the best
answer on the Answer Sheet provided by your instructor.
1. In the scientific method, a hypothesis ____________.
A) is a statement of fact
B) can only be tested once
C) is usually proven to be correct
D) is a proposed explanation based on observations
E) none of the above
2. What is the correct sequence of steps in the scientific
method?
I. State the problem
II. Analyze and interpret the data
III. Develop a hypothesis
IV. Share the results with other scientists
V. Design and perform an experiment to test the hypothesis
A) III → I → V → II → IV
B) I → III → II → IV → V
C) V →IV → III → II → I
D) I → III → V → II → IV
E) V → II → I → III → IV
3. Which of these would be a valid scientific hypothesis?
A) Earthworms and humans share a common genetic code.
B) Humans are controlled by forces beyond our understanding.
C) Humans should help in the conservation of plant species.
D) Human history is determined by a series of supernatural
events.

4. You have formulated a hypothesis that "light is necessary for
seed
germination." To test your hypothesis, one set of maple seeds is
placed in
light with warm temperatures and adequate moisture. Another
set of
identical maple seeds is placed in the dark under the same set of
conditions.
The independent variable (IV) and the control in the experiment
are:
A) IV: light; control: darkness
B) IV: germination at warm temperatures; control: germination
in the light
C) IV: adequate moisture; control: light
D) IV: seeds in the dark; control: rate of germination
E) IV: light; control: germination rate
5. To test a hypothesis about a given variable, experimental and
control
groups are tested in parallel. Which of the following best
explains the dual
experiments?
A) In the control and experimental groups, two different
variables are altered.
B) In the experimental group, a chosen variable is altered in a
known way. In the

control group, that chosen variable is not altered so a
comparison can be
made.
C) In the experimental group, a chosen variable plus all other
variables are
altered. In the control group, the chosen variable is altered;
however, all
other variables are held constant.
D) In the experimental group, that chosen variable is not altered
so a comparison
can be made. In the control group, a chosen variable is altered
in a known
way.
E) Control and experimental group experiments are identical
and run in parallel
to get repeatable results.
6. Which of the following can be considered definitions of
“theory”?
A) A theory can be an explanation of scientific laws
B) A theory is a widely accepted integrated explanation of
numerous hypotheses,
each supported by a large body of observations and experiments
C) A theory is a condensation and simplification of many data
that previously
appeared unrelated
D) A theory is a broad explanation that is supported by a great
deal of evidence

and continues to inspire productive research.
E) All of the above
7. Which of the following structures can perform all the
activities required for
life?
A) organelles
B) nuclei
C) plasma membrane
D) cells
E) DNA molecules
8. Relative to a pH of 6, a pH of 3 has a ______.
A) 300 times lower H+ concentration
B) 1,000 times lower H+ concentration
C) 3 times higher H+ concentration
D) 1,000 times higher H+ concentration
E) 3 times lower H+ concentration
Use the following information to answer questions 9-10 below.
A group of medical researchers recently investigated the effects
of Drug X on
lowering blood pressure in a group of hypertensive middle-aged
women. The

researchers did the following experiment and obtained the
indicated results:
One group of 250 women took a tablet containing Drug X for 3
weeks – 195 of
these women decreased their blood pressure by at least 10%
(three women
from this group dropped out of the study). Another group of
250 women was
given a tablet with no added Drug X for 3 weeks – 67 of these
women
decreased their blood pressure by at least 10% (two women
from this group
dropped out of the study).
9. Which of the following is the most reasonable and accurate
conclusion
based on the results obtained in this experiment?
A) Drug X is good for hypertensive women
B) Drug X is good for both men and women
C) Hypertensive women receiving Drug X for 3 weeks may
show a decrease in
blood pressure
D) Hypertensive women receiving Drug X for 3 weeks may
show an increase in
blood pressure
E) Drug X has no effect on blood pressure
10. Which of the following was the control group in this
experiment?
A) the group of participants that received tablets containing
Drug X

B) the group of participants that received tablets that did not
contain Drug X
C) the number of participants in each group at the beginning of
the experiment
D) the number of participants in each group at the end of the
experiment
E) the amount of Drug X contained in the tablet
11. A substrate binds to an enzyme by interacting with amino
acids in the_____.
A) dehydration reaction
B) binding site
C) hydrolysis site
D) denaturation portal
12. What are the products in the following chemical reaction?
C6H12O6 + 6 H2O + 6 O2 6 CO2 + 12 H2O
A) CO2 and H2O
B) C6H12O6, H2O, and O2
C) O2 only
D) C6H12O6, H2O, O2, CO2, and H2O
13. Which component of the following reaction is the substrate,
and which is
the enzyme? lactose + lactase + water lactase + glucose +

galactose
A) glucose + galactose is the substrate, and water is the enzyme
B) water is the substrate, and lactose is the enzyme
C) glucose is the substrate, and water is the enzyme
D) lactose is the substrate, and lactase is the enzyme
E) lactase is the substrate, and glucose + galactose is the
enzyme
14. In a cell, the endomembrane system includes ______.
A) ribosomes, lysosomes, vacuoles, and the endoplasmic
reticulum
B) Golgi apparatus, ribosomes, vacuoles, and the endoplasmic
reticulum
C) lysosomes, Golgi apparatus, ribosomes, and the endoplasmic
reticulum
D) the endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, and vesicles
15. If one strand of a DNA double helix has the sequence
TGACTCG, what will
be the sequence of the complementary DNA strand?
A) GACGTCA
B) ACAUGAC
C) ACTGAGC
D) GUCAUGA
E) impossible to tell from the information provided.
16. One difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells is
that eukaryotic
cells ______.
A) are found in animals, while plant cells are comprised of

prokaryotic cells.
B) have a plasma membrane, which is lacking in prokaryotic
cells.
C) have a nucleoid region, which is lacking in prokaryotic cells.
D) have membrane-enclosed organelles, which are lacking in
prokaryotic cells.
17. Which of the following statements best describes the
relationship between
photosynthesis and respiration?
A) Photosynthesis occurs only in plants and respiration occurs
only in animals.
B) Respiration is anabolic and photosynthesis is catabolic.
C) Photosynthesis stores energy in complex organic molecules,
while
respiration releases it.
D) ATP molecules are produced in photosynthesis and used up
in respiration.
E) Photosynthesis produces energy, respiration uses energy.
18. What compound directly provides energy for cellular work?
A) C6H12O6
B) ATP
C) glucose
D) fat

19. If placed in tap water, an animal cell will undergo lysis,
whereas a plant cell
will not. What accounts for this difference?
A) the relative impermeability of the plant cell membrane to
water
B) expulsion of water by the plant cell's central vacuole
C) the relative inelasticity and strength of the plant cell wall
D) the relative impermeability of the plant's nuclear membrane
to water
20. Plant cells ______.
A) do not need chloroplasts because their mitochondria meet
their energy needs
B) are prokaryotic because they have cell walls
C) use carbon dioxide but do not use oxygen
D) do not need mitochondria because their chloroplasts meet
their energy needs
E) have chloroplasts and mitochondria
21. Which of the following is not a common feature shared by
all metabolic
pathways?
A) Each pathway contains multiple intermediate products, and
there are small
molecular differences between the intermediates.
B) Each pathway is regulated to ensure the optimal use of
resources and to
maintain the health of the cell.
C) Each step within the pathway, or the conversion from one
intermediate to the

next, is catalyzed by a nucleic acid with a reactive R group.
D) Many pathways are universal among living organisms.
22. A child is born with a rare disease in which mitochondria
are missing from
certain skeletal muscle cells. Physicians find that the muscle
cells function.
Not surprisingly, they also find that ______.
A) the muscle cells cannot split glucose to pyruvic acid
B) the muscles contain large amounts of carbon dioxide
following even mild
physical exercise
C) the muscles require extremely high levels of oxygen to
function
D) the muscles contain large amounts of lactic acid following
even mild physical
exercise
23. Which statement best describes the relationship between
plants and
animals on earth?
A) Plants produce O2 and sugars from CO2
B) Animals produce CO2 and H2O from sugars and O2
C) Plants produce CO2 and H2O, and animals produce O2 and
sugars and
D) Plants produce O2 and sugars and animals produce CO2 and
H2O
E) None of the above.

of 23 © UMUC ALL RIGHTS RESERVED
24. The ultimate source of the energy in food is ______.
A) producers
B) the sun
C) ATP
D) consumers
E) lipids and nucleic acids
25. A researcher planted seeds from four types of quinoa
(Types A, B, C, and
D) in a greenhouse to determine which type of quinoa grew the
tallest. The
plants were grown for 10 days and measured. The results are
shown
below. Choose the data set that demonstrates that Type B
quinoa grew
the tallest.
A) A = 30 cm, B = 21 cm, C= 15 cm, D= 12 cm.
B) A = 22 cm, B = 27 cm, C = 11 cm D= 4 cm
C) A = 2 cm, B = 5 cm, C= 1 cm, D= 2 cm
D) A = 30 cm, B = 12 cm, C= 28 cm, D= 1 cm
E) A = 21 cm, B = 12 cm, C= 20 cm, D= 15 cm
26. A replicated chromosome consists of two ______ joined at
the _____.
A) diploid genes; locus
B) homologous chromosomes; crossing over point
C) genomes; centrosome

D) sister chromatids; centromere
E) haploid chromosomes; fertilization point
27. Homologous chromosomes ______.
A) are both inherited from the female parent
B) are a set of chromosomes that the cell received from one
parent
C) include only the autosomes
D) carry the same versions of all genes
E) carry genes controlling the same inherited characteristics
28. In meiosis, how does prophase I differ from prophase II?
A) During prophase I there is one diploid cell; during prophase
II there are two
haploid cells.
B) During prophase I chromosomes line up single file in the
middle of the cell;
during prophase II the chromosomes line up in double file in the
middle of the
cell.
C) During prophase I the chromosomes coil up; the
chromosomes are not coiled
up during prophase II.
D) In prophase I the sister chromatids are attached; in prophase
II the sister
chromatids are separated.

29. This diagram of the human life cycle shows that ______.
A) meiosis produces a diploid
zygote
B) meiosis produces diploid
sperm and egg cells
C) fertilization produces a haploid
zygote
D) a diploid zygote undergoes
meiosis to produce an adult
human
E) None of the above.
30. A couple has two male children. What is the probability that
their next child
will be female?
A) 100%
B) 25%

C) 33%
D) 50%
E) 67%
F) 0%
31. How can one recognize polygenic inheritance?
A) A mating between a homozygous and a heterozygous
individual produces
more than the expected number of offspring expressing the
dominant trait.
B) All of the alleles of the gene for that trait are equally
expressed.
C) The trait varies along a continuum in the population.
D) Pleiotropy occurs.
Please read the following scenario to answer the following
question.

Widow's peak, a pointed hairline on the forehead, is a genetic
trait caused by a
somatic dominant allele. It can be traced back through a
family's history using
pedigree analysis. The pedigree shown here shows three
generations of a
family. Individuals shown in gray have a widow's peak. (W =
dominant allele
and w = recessive allele)
32. Jonathan's genotype is
_______.
A) WW
B) ww
C) Ww
D) WW or Ww
E) impossible to tell
33. Translation converts the information stored in ______ to
______.
A) DNA... RNA
B) DNA... a polypeptide
C) RNA... DNA
D) RNA... a polypeptide
E) a polypeptide…. DNA

34. After replication, ______.
A) each new DNA double helix consists of two new strands
B) each new DNA double helix consists of two old strands
C) one new DNA double helix consists of two old strands and
the other new DNA
double helix consists of two new strands
D) each new DNA double helix consists of one old strand and
one new strand
35. What is the smallest number of nucleotides that must be
added or
subtracted to change the triplet grouping of the genetic
message?
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
36. What is the ultimate source of all diversity?
A) natural selection
B) sexual recombination
C) meiosis
D) mutation

Please read the following scenario to answer the following two
question(s).
While working with cultured mouse cells, a researcher
unknowingly treated
the cells with a mutagen that causes the deletion or insertion of
individual
nucleotides in DNA. Subsequently, she isolated and cultured a
single cell from
this group. She noticed that the progeny of this cell were not
producing a
certain protein and that this affected their survival.
37. The mutation would be most harmful to the cells if it
resulted in ______.
A) a single nucleotide insertion near the start of the coding
sequence
B) a single nucleotide deletion near the end of the coding
sequence
C) a single nucleotide in the middle of an intron
D) deletion of a triplet near the middle of the gene
38. The mutation that resulted from her accident was probably
______.
A) an amino acid substitution
B) a loss in regulation of gene expression
C) one that changed the triplet grouping of the genetic message
D) an error in translation

39. Why doesn't your tongue grow hair?
A) because the genes for keratin have been deleted from the
cells of your
tongue
B) because different genes are expressed in different tissues
C) because skin cells have extra DNA that encodes hair
proteins
D) because saliva prevents hair from growing
E) because tongue cells contain enzymes that destroy the genes
for hair
production
40. Which of the following are homologous structures?
A) the forelimb of a dog and the hindlimb of a cat
B) the mouth of a mosquito and the beak of a hummingbird
C) wings of a butterfly and wings of a sparrow
D) the forelimb of a dog and the forelimb of a cat
41. What does evolutionary fitness measure?
A) physical health of individuals
B) population size and dispersion
C) relative reproductive success within a population
D) longevity of a population

42. Which one of the following statements is true?
A) Natural selection works on variation already present in a
population.
B) Natural selection works on non-heritable traits.
C) Individuals evolve through natural selection.
D) Organisms evolve structures that they need.
43. In the soil, some ______ convert nitrogen to a form that can
be used by
plants.
A) protists
B) animals
C) protozoans
D) prokaryotes
44. What type of interspecific interaction is described by a
small fish that eats
parasites from mouths of larger fish?
A) mutualism
B) herbivory
C) pollination
D) cannibalism
45. Antibiotic resistance is an example of what type of
evolution?

A) Allopatric.
B) Microevolution.
C) Gene pool magnification
D) Macroevolution.
46. Biomedical researchers study species as disparate as worms,
fruit flies,
mice, zebrafish, or rhesus monkeys to understand our genes, and
even our
diseases. Why?
A) Because these species have many inherited features that are
very similar to
our own.
B) Because these species are all prokaryotes, and therefore their
genes are
99.9% identical to one another.
C) Because they make up an interconnected food web when
bacteria are added.
D) Because rhesus monkeys gave us the Rh+ factor when they
bit our ancestors.
47. Consider the following food chain: A barn owl eats a shrew.
This shrew
has eaten a grasshopper. The grasshopper has eaten the leaves
of a clover
plant and a maple tree. What organisms are on the first trophic

level?
A) the barn owl
B) the shrew
C) the grasshopper
D) the barn owl, the shrew and the grasshopper
E) the clover plant and maple tree
48. Water moves from land to the atmosphere through _____.
A) precipitation only
B) transpiration only
C) transpiration and evaporation
D) evaporation and precipitation
49. Which of the following is not a result of global warming?
A) changes in the breeding seasons of some species.
B) decreasing sea levels.
C) melting permafrost.
D) shifts in the ranges of some species.
50. Which of the following are not examples of renewable
resources?
A) Biofuels produced from plants or plant-derived by-products
such as crop
wastes.
B) Power supplied by human labor or livestock.
C) Fertilizers made from animal manure and composted plants.

D) Metal, cement, and glass, made using mined materials.
51. According to the logistic growth model, what happens to a
population
when the size of the population reaches carrying capacity?
A) The growth rate remains unchanged.
B) The growth rate begins to decrease in size.
C) The population crashes.
D) The growth rate is zero.
52. In an ideal, unlimited environment, what shape does a
population's growth
curve most closely resemble?
A) S
B) /
C) ∧
D) ∪
53. Non-native species can influence biological communities by
______.
A) preying upon native species
B) competing with native species for resources
C) reducing biodiversity
D) doing all of the above
54. An example of a mutualism is ______.
A) herbivory

B) cryptic coloration in snakes
C) the relationship between unicellular algae and corals
D) the relationship between voles and sparrows, which use some
of the same
resources
55. Populations of two coexisting species are both tertiary
consumers in a
community. What relationship may exist between these two
organisms?
A) predation
B) mutualism
C) commensalism
D) competition
E) meiosis
56. A _______ species exerts a particularly strong influence on
an ecosystem
out of proportion to its size or abundance; its decline or
extinction can
cause a cascade of future extinctions within an ecosystem.
A) commensal
B) keystone
C) trophic
C) pelagic
E) groundwater
57. Which consumer population in the system below would
probably have the

least energy available to it?
A) Clover
B) Toad
C) Aphid
D) Ladybug
E) Sunlight
*****************************************************
*******************************************
MATCHING SECTION #1 (12 points)
MATCHING SECTION INSTRUCTIONS: Read all instructions
carefully. Please
answer all questions. Each question is worth 1 point.
Match the level of hierarchy with its example in the table
below. Type in the
letter you select from the right column as the best answer on the
Answer
Sheet provided by your instructor.
Hierarchical
Level
Answer Example

1. Atoms A. Human being; frog; dragonfly
2. Molecules B. nerve, muscle, connective, epithelial
3. Macromolecules C. all human beings
4. Organelles D. Great Barrier reef
5. Cells E. Stomach; Brain
6. Tissues F. Ca (calcium), Oxygen (O), Hydrogen (H),
Nitrogen (N)
7. Organs G. flock of geese; school of fish
8. Organism H. lysosome, mitochondria, plasma membrane
9. Population I. neuron; erythrocyte
10. Species J. DNA, phospholipids
11. Community K. Water (H2O), Nitrate (NO3)
12. Ecosystem L. Grasses, shrubs, and trees growing in an old
field

MATCHING SECTION #2 (12 points)
MATCHING SECTION INSTRUCTIONS: Read all instructions
carefully. Please
answer all questions. Each question is worth 1 point.
Match the Definition/Association with the Term or Concept in
the table below.
Type in the letter you select from the right column as the best
answer on the
Answer Sheet provided by your instructor.
TERM or CONCEPT Answer Definition/Association
1. Gamete A. These cells do not have a nucleus, but do have
a plasma membrane, a cell wall, and a nucleoid
region.
2. Eukaryotic plant cells B. These cells have a plasma
membrane and a
nucleus, but no chloroplasts or a cell wall.
3. Golgi bodies C. These cells contain chloroplasts and a
nucleus.
4. All prokaryotes D. These cells have a plasma membrane and
a
cell wall, and either a nucleus or a nucleoid region.
5. Chromosome E. DNA molecule with attached proteins

6. Crossing over F. a haploid cell that combines with another
haploid cell during fertilization
7. Eukaryotic animal cells G. the type of cell division
responsible for gamete
formation and sexual reproduction
8. Gene H. an interaction during meiosis in which nonsister
chromatids exchange segments; results in genetic
recombination
9. Mitosis I. help distribute chromosomes to the new cells
during cell division
10. Plant and bacterial
cells
J. package cellular secretions for export
11. Meiosis K. the type of cell division which is used in
asexual
reproduction and tissue growth and repair
12. Microtubules L. a specific portion of a chromosome that
contains information for a particular inherited trait
FILL IN THE BLANK SECTION (15 points)

INSTRUCTIONS: Provide the best answer for the items below.
Each item is
worth three (3) points. Please answer all questions in this
section. Type your
best answer on the Answer Sheet provided by your instructor.
1. ________ is the total amount of living organic materials or
group of organisms
within an ecosystem.
2. Enzymes are biological ________ that mediate the
conversion of substrate to
product, by lowering the activation energy of the reaction.
3. A ________ bond is an interaction between a partially
positive hydrogen atom
and a partially negative atom with unshared (lone) pair of
electrons.
4. _______ is the stage of mitosis where new nuclear envelopes
form around the
separated chromosomes at each pole of the cell, the
chromosomes unfold back
into chromatin, nucleoli reappear, and the cell continues to
elongate.
5. ________ is the movement of a substance across a biological
membrane against
its concentration gradient, aided by specific transport proteins
and requiring input

of energy (often ATP).
SHORT ANSWER SECTION
INSTRUCTIONS: Each question is worth four (4) points. Total
points for this
section is 24 points. Complete 6 questions in this Short Answer
Section.
**Do not enter your answers here.** Type your answers into the
Answer Sheet
provided by your instructor.
1. Soil pH determine what types of plants will grow the best. If
soil is too acidic, lime
can be added to the soil, and if it is too basic, peat moss can be
added to the soil.
You test your soil and find that its pH is 2.8, and you want to
grow oaks, which prefer
to grow in soils in the 6.0-7.5pH range. Would you add lime or
peat moss to adjust
your soil's pH? Why?
2. When does a logistic population growth curve show the
highest rate of growth?
Why?
3. DNA and RNA are similar yet distinct components of the
cell. Describe four
differences between RNA and DNA with respect to their
chemical composition,
structure, and or function. Describe in detail each characteristic
you chose in your
response.

4. You are setting up a blood cell osmosis lab for a group of
students and prepare
three solutions: 0.05% salt; 1.2% salt, and 65% salt.
Unfortunately, prior to lab, the
labels fall off the solution bottles and are thrown away, and the
bottles are mixed up.
You tell the students that they will deduce the identity of each
solution by interpreting
the data they collect. Students place red blood cells into each
of the three solutions;
wait for 10 minutes, and then observe the size and shape of the
red blood cells
under the microscope. The internal solute concentration of red
blood cells is
approximately 1% salt. The students' observations are
summarized below in Table 1:
Table 1. Condition of red blood cells in three types of
solutions.
Solution
1
0.05% salt

School of Undergraduate Studies Social, Behavioral, Math.docx

School of Undergraduate Studies Social, Behavioral, Math.docx

Empfohlen

Empfohlen

Weitere ähnliche Inhalte

Ähnlich wie School of Undergraduate Studies Social, Behavioral, Math.docx

Ähnlich wie School of Undergraduate Studies Social, Behavioral, Math.docx (20)

Mehr von kenjordan97598

Mehr von kenjordan97598 (20)

Kürzlich hochgeladen

Kürzlich hochgeladen (20)

School of Undergraduate Studies Social, Behavioral, Math.docx