Assessment of Learning 1

1. Teacher Ryan conducted a short quiz after discussing
the topic “Item Analysis”, to get feedback on how much
the students learned which may not be used for grading
purposes is classified as a ____________.
a. Placement assessment c. Formative Assessment
b. Summative assessment d. Diagnostic Assessment
Answer:

2. The criterion of success of Teacher RC in his lesson is that “the
students must be able to get 85% of the test items correctly”. Luis and
29 other students in the class answered only 33 out of 40 items
correctly. This means that teacher RC _____________.
a. attained his lesson objective because of his effective problem
solving drills.
b. did not attain his lesson objective because his students lack of
attention.
c. attained his lesson objective.
d. did not attain his lesson objective as far as the 30 students are
concerned
Answer

3. To increase the difficulty of a multiple-choice test
item, which of the following should be done?
a. Make the options homogenous
b. Make the stem short and clear.
c. Make it grammatically correct.
d. Make the options equal in length.
Answer

4. Teacher Y set 85% accuracy in a test on predicting the kind of
weather given five different atmospheric conditions. Marivic
obtained a score of 82% can be interpreted as _________.
a. she obtained 82% percentile score.
b. she did not meet the set standard by 3%
c. she is higher than 82% of the group
d. she is 3% short of the set percentile score.
Answer

5. Teacher Anne gave a test at the end of a lesson to
find out if the objectives of her lesson have been
attained. This can be classified as _____________.
a. Placement assessment
b. Curricular assessment
c. Norm-referenced
d. Criterion-referenced
Answer

6. What are the characteristics of a good assessment
instrument?
I. Objectivity
II. Validity
III. Practicality and Efficiency
IV. Reliability
a. I,II,IV b. II, IV c. I,II,III d. I,II,III,IV
Answer

7. Teacher Ace wants to establish the reliability of his
test in Biology. Which of the following will he
accomplish?
I. Administer a parallel test.
II. Split the test
III. Construct a variety of items.
IV. Administer the same test twice.
Answer
a. I, III, IV b. I, II, IV c. I, II d. IV

8. Teacher Nancy constructed a matching type test item. In her
column of descriptions are combinations of presidents, current
issues, and sports. Which rule of constructing a matching type test
item was NOT followed?
a. The options must be greater than the descriptions.
b. The descriptions must be homogeneous.
c. The descriptions must heterogeneous.
d. Arrange the options according to order.
Answer

9. Teacher MJ give a 59-item test in English where
the mean performance of the group is 40 and the
standard deviation is 6. Markie obtained a score of
45. Which of the following best describe his
performance?
a. Below average c. Above average
b. Average d. Outstanding
Answer

10. Which of the following does NOT belong to the
group when we talk about projective personality test?
a. Sentence completion test.
b. Interview
c. Word association test
d. Thematic Apperception test
Answer

11. Which of the following is the main purpose of
administering a pre-test and post-test to the students?
a. Measure the value of the materials used.
b. Accustom the students in frequent testing.
c. Measure gains in learning.
d. Measure the effectiveness of instruction.
Answer

12. Teacher G discovered that his students are weak in
grammar. Which assessment procedure should Teacher G
administer to further determine in which other skills his
students are weak?
a. Placement Assessment c. Diagnostic Assessment
b. Summative Assessment d. Formative Assessment
Answer

13. Teacher K conducted a test in MAKABAYAN IV, in her item
number 13 it is said to be non-discriminating. What can be said
about this item?
I. The item is very difficult that nobody got the correct answer.
II. Teaching or learning is very good.
III. The item is very easy and everybody got it right.
a. I only b. I and II c. I and III d. III only
Answer

14. A portfolio assessment requires a presentation of a
collection of student’s work. What is the purpose of the
said activity?
I. The showcase the current abilities and skills of the
learners.
II. To show growth and development of the learners.
III. To evaluate the cumulative achievement of the learners.
a. I,II and III b. I and II c. I and III d. II and III
Answer

15. Which of the following is/are true about matching type
test?
I. The descriptions and options must be homogeneous.
II. The options at the first column and the descriptions at
the second column.
III. The number of options must be greater than the number
of descriptions.
IV. There must be at least three items.
a. I only b. I and III c. I,II,III d. I,III and IV
Answer

16. Which statement is true in a bell-shaped curve?
a. There are more high scores than low scores.
b. Most of the scores are high.
c. The scores are normally distributed.
d. There are more low scores than high scores.
Answer

17. Jay R’s raw score in Mathematics class is 94 which is equal to
97th
percentile. What does this mean?
a. 97% of Jay R’s classmates got a score higher than 94.
b. 97% of Jay R’s classmates got a score lower than 94.
c. Jay R’s score is less than 97% of his classmates.
d. Jay R is higher than 97% of his classmates.
Answer

18. The discrimination index of a test item is 0.35. What does this
mean?
a. More students in the lower group got the item correctly than
those students in the upper group.
b. More students in the upper group got the item correctly than
those students in the lower group.
c. The number of students in the lower group and upper group who
got the item correctly are equal.
d. More students from the upper group got the item incorrectly.
Answer

19. Which of the following statement/s is/are important in
developing a scoring rubrics?
I. Description of each criterion to serve a standard.
II. Very clear descriptions of performance in each level.
III. Rating scale.
IV. Mastery levels of achievement
a. I only b. I and II c. I,II,III d. I,II,III,IV
Answer

20. Teacher A is talking about “grading on the curve” in a
district meeting. What does this mean?
a. A student grade determines whether or not a student
attains a defined standard of achievement.
b. A student grade tells how closely he is achieving to his
potential.
c. A student grade compares his achievement to his effort.
d. A student grade depends on how achievement
compares with the achievements of other students in a
class.
Answer

21. Which of the statement best describes norm-referenced
interpretation?
a. BJ performed better in Mathematics than 85% of his classmates.
b. BJ was able to get 60% of the items correctly.
c. BJ got 40 items correctly out of 50 items.
d. BJ was able to answer his test in 45 minutes only.
Answer

22. Which of the following instructional objectives is the highest
level of Bloom’s cognitive taxonomy?
a. Compute the standard deviation value: 25, 27, 30, 33, & 36.
b. Identify the kinds of measure of variation.
c. Compare and contrast quartile deviation and standard deviation.
d. Explain the concept of variation.
Answer

23. Teacher DJ wants to test his student’s ability to
formulate ideas, which type of test should he
formulate?
a. Completion type b. Matching-type
c. Multiple-choice answer d. Essay
Answer

24. Which is the first step in planning periodic test?
a. Select the type of test item to use.
b. Construct a table of specification.
c. God back to the instructional objectives.
d. Determine the group of whom the test is
intended.
Answer

25. Below is a list of method used to establish the
reliability to a test, which method is questionable due to
practice and familiarity?
a. Split half b. Equivalent form
c. Kuder Richardson d. Test-retest
Answer

26. Teacher BJ wrote about Ryan:” When Ryan came to
class this morning, he seemed very tired and slouched into
his seat. He took no part in his class discussion and seemed
to have no interest in what was discussed. This was very
unusual for he has been eager to participate and often
monopolizes the class discussion. What Teacher BJ wrote is
an example of a/an ______.
a. anecdotal report c. personality report
b. observation report d. incidence report
Answer

27. About how many percent of the cases fall between -2SD
and +2SD in the normal curve?
a. 34.13 b. 68.26 c. 95.44 d. 99.72
Answer

28. Teacher Luis found out that more from the lower group
got item #16 correctly in his item analysis. This means that
the test item has ___________.
a. negative discriminating power
b. low validity
c. positive discriminating power
d. zero discriminating power
Answer

29. Under which assumption is portfolio assessment based?
a. Portfolio assessment is dynamic assessment.
b. Assessment should stress the reproduction knowledge.
c. An individual learner is inadequately characterized by a
test score.
d. An individual learner is adequately characterized by a test
score.
Answer

30. What is the meaning of TOS in the parlance of test
construction?
a. Table of Specifics c. Table of Specific Test
b. Table of Specifications d. Table of Subject
Answer

31. Which is implied by a positively skewed score
distribution?
a. The mean, the median and the mode are equal.
b. Most of the scores are high.
c. The mode is high.
d. Most of the scores are low.
Answer

32. Which statement best describes a negatively
skewed score distribution?
a. Most examinees got high scores.
b. The value of median and mode are equal.
c. The value of mode corresponds to a low score.
d. The value of median is higher than the value of
mode.
Answer

33. In a normal distribution, a T-score of 70 is ___________.
a. two SDs below the mean c. one SD below the mean
b. two SDs above the mean d. one SD above the mean
Answer

34. The computer value of r for Math and Science is 0.92. What does
this mean?
a. Math and Science scores are inversely related.
b. High scores in Math are associated with high scores in Science.
c. Low scores in math are associated with high scores in Science.
d. The higher the scores in Science, the lower the scores in Math.
Answer

35. Teacher B is researching on family income distribution
which is symmetrical. Which measure/s of central tendency
will be most informative and appropriate?
a. Mode b. Mean c. Median d. Mean and Median
Answer

36. What measure/s of central tendency does the number
20 represent in the following score distribution? 25, 15,
17, 20,23, 18, 20, 24?
a. Mode only c. Mode and Median
b. Median only d. Mean and mode
Answer

37. The Analysis of Variance utilizing the F-test is
appropriate to test the significant difference between
_____________.
a. frequencies c. median
b. two means only d. three or more means
Answer

38. Which statement about standard deviation is CORRECT?
a. The smaller the standard deviation the more spread the scores are.
b. The larger the standard deviation the less spread the scores are.
c. The larger the standard deviation the more spread the score are.
d. It is measure of central tendency.
Answer

39. Teacher Ryan Christopher gave a summative test. In which
competency did his students find the greatest difficulty? In the
item with a difficulty index of ________________.
a. 0.09 b. 1.0 c. 0.75 d. 0.45
Answer

40. Teacher Kristy conducted an item analysis is her
Chapter examination, she found out that the difficulty
index of item 20 is 0.45 and the discrimination index is
0.33. What should the teacher do with this item?
a. Reject the item c. Revise the item
b. Retain the item d. Make the item bonus
Answer

Situation A. Study this group of test which was administered to a class whom Ritz
Glenn belongs, then answer the questions(41-43).
Subject Ritz Glenn’s
Score
Mean Score Standard
deviation (s)
Math 90 85 1.5
English 95 97 2.0
PEHM 94 92 1.75
41. In which subject/s did Ritz Glenn performed well?
a. Math b. Math and English c. English d. PEHM
Answer

Subject Ritz Glenn’s Score Mean Score Standard deviation (s)
Math 90 85 1.5
English 95 97 2.0
PEHM 94 92 1.75
42. What type of learner is Ritz Glenn?
a. logical and bodily kinaesthetic.
b. logical
c. linguistic
d. bodily kinaesthetic
Answer

Subject Ritz Glenn’s Score Mean Score Standard deviation (s)
Math 90 85 1.5
English 95 97 2.0
PEHM 94 92 1.75
43. In which group of scores most spread?
a. Math and PEHM B. Math c. English d. PEHM
Answer

44. The score distribution of Set A and Set B have equal mean but
with different SD’s. Set A has SD of 2.75 while Set B has SD of
3.25. Which statement is TRUE of the score distributions?
a. Majority of the scores in Set B are clustered around the mean.
b. Majority of the scores is Set A are clustered around the mean than
in set B.
c. Scores in Set A are more widely scattered.
d. The scores of Set B has less variability than the scores in Set A.
Answer

Situation B. Study the table on item analysis for non-attractiveness
and non-plausibility of distracters based on the results of a try-out
test in Science. The letter marked with an asterisk is the correct
answer.
Item No. 1 A B C D*
Upper 27% 3 3 1 8
Lower 27% 5 1 6 3
45. The table shows that the test item analyzed ______________.
a. has a positive discrimination index.
b. has a negative discrimination index.
c. is easy
d. is difficult
Answer

Item No. 1 A B C D*
Upper 27% 3 3 1 8
Lower 27% 5 1 6 3
46. Based on the table, which is most effective distracter?
a. Option A b. Option B c. Option C d. Option D
Answer

Item No. 1 A B C D*
Upper 27% 3 3 1 8
Lower 27% 5 1 6 3
47. What is the difficulty level of the given item?
a. Easy c. Difficult
b. Moderately Difficult d. Very difficult
Answer

Item No. 1 A B C D*
Upper 27% 3 3 1 8
Lower 27% 5 1 6 3
48. Based on the table, what should you do with the
test item?
a. make the item bonus c. retain the item
b. reject the item d. revise the item
Answer

49. Which of the following statements are components of the grading system based
on Dep Ed Order 33, series of 2004?
I. The lowest failing grade appeared in the report card is 65%.
II. Transmutation table is utilized in the computation of grade.
III. Mastery of at least 75% of the competencies.
IV. Use table of equivalence in the computation of grade.
V. Cumulative system for final grade is utilized.
a. I, III, IV
b. I, II, III, IV
c. II, IV, V
d. I, II, III, IV, V
Answer

50. JP’s scores in English quizzes are as follows: 96, 90,
85, 89, 65, 99, 84, 82. What is the mean value?
a. 83. 25 b. 84. 25 c. 85. 25 d. 86.25
Answer

51. Teacher Adrian will construct an achievement test. Which of
the following he will accomplish first?
a. Construct relevant test items.
b. Prepare table of specification.
c. Determine the number of items to be constructed.
d. Identify the intended learning outcomes.
Answer

Situation A (For item 52-53)
Direction: Column A describes events associated with U.S presidents, inventor, civil right
leader. Indicate which name in Column B matches each event by placing the appropriate letter
to the left of the number to Column A. Each name may be used once only.
Column A Column B
1. President of the 20th
Century A. Lincoln
2. Invented the telephone B. Nixon
3. Delivered the Emancipation Proclamation C. Whitney
4. Recent president to resign from office D. Ford
5. Civil rights leader E. Bell
6. Invented the cotton gin F. King
7. Our first president G. Washington
8. Only president elected for more than H. Roosevelt
two terms.
52. Which guideline of writing matching type item was NOT
FOLLOWED?
a. It is very difficult test items.
b. Consist of less than ten items.
c. It is NOT valid test items.
d. It is NOT homogeneous.
Answer

Column A Column B
1. President of the 20th
Century A. Lincoln
2. Invented the telephone B. Nixon
3. Delivered the Emancipation Proclamation C. Whitney
4. Recent president to resign from office D. Ford
5. Civil rights leader E. Bell
6. Invented the cotton gin F. King
7. Our first president G. Washington
8. Only president elected for more than H. Roosevelt
two terms.
53. Using the data in situation A. How would you improve the
options to avoid ambiguity?
a. Arrange the options in alphabetical order.
b. Add two more options to avoid guessing.
c. Write the complete names in the options.
d. Remove two options to have valid options.
Answer

54. Which of the following objectives is the highest level
of Bloom’s taxonomy?
a. Identifies the meaning of term.
b. Identifies the order of the given events.
c. Interprets the meaning of an idea.
d. Improves defective test items.
Answer

55. Which statement/s is/are true in constructing matching
type of test?
I. The options and descriptions not necessarily
homogeneous.
II. The options must be greater than the descriptions.
III. The directions must state the basis of matching.
IV. Descriptions in Column A and options in Column B.
a. I, II and III c. I, II and IV
b. II, III, and IV d. I, II, III and IV
Answer

56. Which of the following should be AVOIDED in
constructing true or false test?
I. Verbal clues and specific determiner.
II. Terms denoting definite degree or amount.
III. Taking statements directly from the book.
IV. Keep true and false statement the same in length.
a. I and III only c. I, II, and IV
b. I, II, and III d. II and IV only
Answer

57. Which of the following test item can best effectively
measure higher order of cognitive learning objectives?
a. Objective Test c. Completion Test
b. Achievement test d. Extended essay test
Answer

58. Which statements best describes a short-answer test
items?
I. It is easy to write test items.
II. Broad range of knowledge outcomes can be measured.
III. Adaptable in measuring complex learning outcomes.
IV. Scoring is NOT tedious and time consuming.
a. I, II and III c. II and IV only
b. I and II only d. II, III and IV
Answer

Situation B. The data on the table below are results of test which was administered
to four subjects in which Ritz Glenn belong. Using the said data answer the
questions. (59-63).
Subject Ritz Glenn’s Score Mean Standard Deviation
English 88 85 3.5
Mathematics 95 97 5
Music 90 98 6.5
PE 94 91 4
59. In which subject did Ritz Glenn performed best in relation to the
performance of the group?
a. English b. Music c. Mathematics d. PE
Answer

English 88 85 3.5
Mathematics 95 97 5
Music 90 98 6.5
PE 94 91 4
60. What type of learner is Ritz Glenn?
a. Bodily Kinesthetic c. Musical
b. Logical d. Linguistic
Answer

English 88 85 3.5
Mathematics 95 97 5
Music 90 98 6.5
PE 94 91 4
61. In which subject did Ritz Glenn performed
mostly poorly in relation to the group
performance?
a. English c. Mathematics
b. Music d. PE
Answer

English 88 85 3.5
Mathematics 95 97 5
Music 90 98 6.5
PE 94 91 4
62. In which subject the scores most
dispersed?
b. Music d. PE
Answer

English 88 85 3.5
Mathematics 95 97 5
Music 90 98 6.5
PE 94 91 4
63. In which subject the scores less dispersed?
b. Music d. PE
Answer

64. Which statement best describes normal distribution?
a. Only few got average scores.
b. The mean, the median are equal.
c. Negatively skewed distribution.
d. Most of the scores lies at one end of the distribution.
Answer

65. Standard deviation is to Measure of Variation as
_______ is to Measures of Central Tendency/
a. Quartile Deviation c. Range
b. Mean Deviation d. Mode
Answer

66. What type of measure of variation easily affected
by the extremes scores?
a. Range c. Inter-quartile range
b. Quartile Deviation d. Standard deviation
Answer

67. Which measure/s of central tendency easily
affected by the extreme scores?
a. Median c. Mode
b. Mean d. Mean and Median
Answer

68. At type of error committed in grading the performance
of the students by the rater who avoids both extremes of the
scale and tends to rate everyone as average.
a. generosity error c. logical error
b. severity error d. central tendency error
Answer

69. What error committed by the rater if he overate the
performance of the student/s?
a. generosity error c. logical error
b. severity error d. central tendency error
Answer

70. Which of the following assessment techniques best
assess the objective “Plans and designs an experiment
to be performed”.
a. paper and pencil test c. Checklist
b. Rating scale d. Essay
Answer

71. Teacher Gina is talking about “grading on the curve” in a
teacher’s assembly. This means that she’s referring to what
type of grading system?
a. Cumulative method of grading c. Criterion-reference grading
b. Norm-reference grading d. Combination of B and C
Answer

72. The computed value of r=0.95 in Mathematics and
English. What does this imply?
a. Mathematics score is not related to English score.
b. English score is moderately related to Mathematics
score.
c. Mathematics score is highly positive related to English
score.
d. English score is not anyway related to Mathematics
score.
Answer

73. Teacher Jean will conduct a test “to measure her
student’s ability to organize thoughts and present original
ideas”. Which of type of test is most appropriate?
a. Modified true-false test item c. Short answer test
b. Completion type of test d. Essay test
Answer

74. Which characteristics best describes the given score
distribution? The scores are: 22, 23, 24, 24, 24, 25, 26, 26,
35, 36, 37, 38, 39, 39, 39, 40, 40, 45.
a. Multi-modal c. Normally distributed
c. Bimodal d. Skewed to the left
Answer

75. Which of the following statement refers to criterion-
reference interpretation?
a. Ritz got the highest score in Mathematics.
b. Luis computed the problem solving faster than his
classmates.
c. Vinci set up his laboratory equipments in 2 minutes.
d. Lovely’s test score is higher than 95% of the class.
Answer

76. Which of the following is an example of norm-
referenced interpretation?
a. Lord’s test score is higher than 89% of the class
b. Vinci set up his laboratory equipments in 2 minutes.
c. Harold must spell 25 words correctly out of 30 words.
d. Mark solve 5 problems correctly in 30 minutes.
Answer

77. What is the main advantage of using table of
specifications (TOS) when constructing periodic test?
a. It increases the reliability of the test results.
b. It reduces the scoring time.
c. It makes test construction easier.
d. It improves the sampling of content areas.
Answer

78. The main objective of testing in teaching is
_________________.
a. to assess students learning and the effectiveness of
instruction.
b. to assess the effectiveness of teaching methods used.
c. to evaluate the instructional materials used.
d. to evaluate the performance of the teacher in that
particular lesson.
Answer

79. Which of the following statement is the main reason
why should negative words be avoided in constructing
multiple-choice test?
a. Increase the difficulty of the test item.
b. More difficult to construct options.
c. Might be overlooked.
d. Stems tends to be longer
Answer

80. Obtaining a dependable ranking of students is a
major concern when using:
a. teacher-made diagnostic test.
b. norm-reference test.
c. criterion-reference test.
d. mastery achievement test.
Answer

81. When a test is lengthened, the reliability
is likely to _________?
a. increase c. not determined
b. decrease d. both A and B
Answer

82. Which of the following statements describes
performance based assessment?
I. Evaluate complex learning outcomes and skills.
II. Encourages the application of learning to “real
life” situation.
III. Measure broad range of contents.
a. I only c. III only
b. I and II d. I, II and III
Answer

83. Teacher Adrian conducted item analysis and
he found out that more from the lower group got
the test item number 6 correctly. This means
that the test item ____________.
a. has a low reliability
b. has a high validity
c. has a positive discrimination power
d. has a negative discriminating power
Answer

84. Which is implied by a positively skewed score
distribution?
a. Most of the scores are below the mean value.
b. Most of the scores are above the mean value.
c. The mean is less than the median.
d. The mean, the median and the mode are equal.
Answer

85. Most of the students who took the examination got
scores above the mean. What is the graphical
representation of the score distribution?
a. skewed to the left c. Skewed to
the right
b. scores are normally distribute d.
positively skewed
Answer

86. Which statement best describes a negatively
skewed score distribution?
a. The value of mean and median are equal.
b. Most examinees got scores above the mean.
c. The value of mode corresponds to a low score.
d. The value of median is higher than the value of
mode.
Answer

87. In a normal distribution a T-score of 80 is
____________.
a. two SD’s below the mean c. three SD’s
below the mean
b. two SD’s above the mean d. three SD’s
above the mean
Answer

88. The distribution of a class with academically poor
students is most likely __________.
a. normally distributed c. skewed to the right
b. skewed to the left d. leptokurtic
Answer

89. Teacher Paul conducted item analysis and he found out
that significantly greater number form the upper group of
the class got test item number 10 correctly. This means that
the test item ______.
a. has negative discriminating power.
b. has a positive discriminating power.
c. has low reliability.
d. has high validity.
Answer

90. Mary Anne obtained a NAT percentile rank of 93. This
imply that ______.
a. she surpassed in performance 7% of her group.
b. she got a score of 93.
c. she answered 93 items correctly.
d. she surpassed in performance 93% of her fellow
examinees.
Answer

91. Based from the two sets of scores below, which statement
correctly applies to the two sets of data?
Set A: 10, 13, 15, 16, 20 ,25
Set B: 13, 14, 17, 18, 23, 25
a. The range of Set B is 15.
b. The range of Set A is 11.
c. The scores in Set A are more scattered than those in Set B.
d. The scores in Set B are more scattered than those in Set A.
Answer

92. Which of the following statement best
describes the incorrect options in item analysis?
a. Determining the percentage equivalent of the
cut off score.
b. Determining the highest score.
c. Determining the attractiveness of distracters.
d. Determining the cut off score.
Answer

93. Teacher Kristy gave a chapter test, in which
competency did her students find greatest difficulty? In
the item with a difficulty index of____________.
a. 0.25 c. 0.75
b. 0.15 d. 1.00
Answer

Scores Number of students
11-15 7
16-20 10
21-25 7
26-30 20
31-35 6
94. Fifty students took 40 items in English,
below are their scores. (Items 94 to 95).
In which interval the median values lies?
a. In the interval 16-20.
b. In the interval 26-30.
c. Between the interval 16-20 and 21-25.
d. In the interval 21-25.
Answer

Scores Number of students
11-15 7
16-20 10
21-25 7
26-30 20
31-35 6
95. Based on the data on item number 94, how many
percent of the scores lower than 21?
a. 14% c. 20%
b. 17% d. 34%
Answer

96. Teacher Lawrence gave a test in Mathematics. The
facility of item No. 10 is 75%. The best way described
item No. 10 is _______.
a. very easy item c. average item
b. easy item d. difficult item
Answer

97. At the end of the school year, all third year
students presented their portfolio in English subject.
Students, teachers, and other stakeholders were
asked to view and give their comments regarding
what was viewed. Which authentic assessment was
organized?
a. Exhibits c. Conference
b. Program d. Seminar
Answer

98. Joseph’s score in Science is 1.5 standard deviation
above the mean of his group and 2 standard deviation
above Mathematics. What does this mean?
a. He excels both in Science and in Mathematics.
b. He is better in Mathematics than in Science.
c. He is better in Science than in Mathematics.
d. He does not excel in both subjects.
Answer

99. The criterion of success in Teacher Jenny objective is that
“the students must be able to get 80% of the test items
correctly”. Luis and 24 other students in the class answered only
20 out of 25 items correctly. This means that teacher Jenny
_____________.
a. attained her lesson objective because of her effective problem
solving drills.
b. did not attain her lesson objective because her students lack
of attention.
c. attained her lesson objective.
d. did not attain her lesson objective as far as the 25 students are
concerned.
Answer

100. The grading system of Department of Education is
averaging. What is the average final grade of Andie in English
for four grading periods?
1st
Grading 2nd
Grading 3rd
Grading 4th
Grading Final Rating
90 88 93 95 ?
a. 91.75 c. 94.00
b. 92.25 d. 95.00
Answer

101. The grading method which gives weight to the
present grade and the previous grade of the student
such as =1/3(TGG) + 2/3(FGG) Final Grade is called
__________.
a. Averaging c. Norm
referenced
b. Criterion referenced d. Cumulative
Answer

102. To increase the difficulty of a multiple-choice test
item, which of the following should be done?
a. Make the stem short and clear.
b. Make the options homogeneous.
c. Make it grammatically correct.
d. Make the options equal in length.
Answer

Situation C. (Item number 103 to 110).
Given the table on item analysis for non-attractiveness and non-plausibility of
distracters based on the results of a try-out test in English. The letter mark with
an asterisk is the correct answer.
Item No. 10 A* B C D
Upper 27% 16 3 10 1
Lower 27% 14 6 8 2
103. Based on the table, which group got more correct answer?
a. Lower group c. Can’t be determined
b. Upper group d. Either lower group or upper group
Answer

Upper 27% 16 3 10 1
Lower 27% 14 6 8 2
104. The table shows that the item analysed has
_________.
a. Positive discriminating index.
b. Negative discriminating index.
c. zero discriminating index.
d. high reliability index.
Answer

Upper 27% 16 3 10 1
Lower 27% 14 6 8 2
105. Based on the table in Situation C, which is the
most effective distracters?
a. Option A c. Option C
b. Option B d. Option D
Answer

Upper 27% 16 3 10 1
Lower 27% 14 6 8 2
106. Base on the table in Situation C, which
distracters should be revised?
a. Option A c. Option C
b. Option B d. Option D
Answer

Upper 27% 16 3 10 1
Lower 27% 14 6 8 2
107. What is the level of difficulty of item 6 in Situation
C?
a. very easy c. moderately difficult
b. easy d. difficult
Answer

Upper 27% 16 3 10 1
Lower 27% 14 6 8 2
108. What is the discriminating index of item number 6
in situation C?
a. 3% c. 7%
b. 6% d. 50%
Answer

109. Which statement about performance-based
assessment is FALSE?
a. They stress on process as well as product.
b. They also stress on doing, not only knowing.
c. Essay test are example of performance-base
assessments.
d. They emphasize merely on process.
Answer

110. A Z-scores provide information about the location of
the raw scores _________.
a. below the mean in units of the range of the distribution;
b. above the mean in units of the standard deviation of the
distribution;
c. above and below the mean in units of the range of the
distribution;
d. above and below the mean in standard deviation units
from the mean.
Answer

111. Assessment is said to be authentic when the teacher
____________.
a. considers student’s suggestions in testing.
b. gives valid and reliable paper-and-pencil test.
c. gives students real-life tasks to accomplish.
d. includes parents in the determination of assessment
procedures.
Answer

112. If teacher Jerick Ivan wants to test his student’s
synthesizing skills. Which of the following has the highest
diagnostic value?
a. Completion test c. Essay test
b. Performance test d. Multiple choice test
Answer

113. Which of the following statement about marking
on a normative basis?
a. the normal distribution curve should be followed.
b. most of the students get low scores.
c. most of the students get high scores.
d. the grading should based from the given criteria.
Answer

114. The discriminating index of item number 15 is 0.44.
This means that _____________.
a. more students from the upper group got the item
correctly.
b. more students from the lower group got the item
correctly.
c. equal number of students got the correct answer form
the upper and lower group.
d. the test item is very easy.
Answer

115. The difficulty index of item 20 is 0.55 and the
discrimination index is 0.15. What should the teacher do
with this item?
a. Reject the item c. Revise the item
b. Retain the item d. Make the item bonus
Answer

116. The discriminating index of item number 1 is -0.15.
This means that ______.
a. More students from the upper group got the item
correctly.
b. More students from the lower group got the item
correctly.
c. Equal number of students got the correct answer from
the upper and lower group.
d. The test item is very difficult.
Answer

117. Suppose that a certain aptitude test
administered to a randomly selected group of
college students had a mean of 8- and standard
deviation of 5. If BJ got a z-score of 3, what is the
value of his raw score?
a. 80 c. 90
b. 85 d. 95
Answer

118. About how many percent of the case fall
between -1SD and +1SD in the normal curve?
a. 99.72 c. 68.26
b. 95.44 d. 34.13
Answer

119. In research, t-test is appropriate to test the significant
difference between:
a. frequencies c. two mean only
b. median d. three or more means
Answer

120. Skewed score distribution means:
a. The scores are normally distributed
b. The mean and the median are equal.
c. The mode, the mean, and the median are equal.
d. The scores are concentrated more at one end or the
other end.
Answer

121. Teacher Anne give achievement test to her 30 students.
The test consists of the 25 items. She wants to compare her
students’ performance based on the test results. What is the
appropriate measure for the position?
a. Percentage c. z-score
b. Percentile rank d. Standard nine
Answer

122. Student J was asked to report to the Guidance Office. Student J
and his classmates at once remarked: “What’s wrong?” What does this
mean?
a. reporting to a Guidance Office is often associated with misbehavior.
b. The parents of student J must be of the delinquent type.
c. Student J is a “problem” student.
d. Guidance counsellors are perceived to be “almighty and
omniscient”.
Answer

123. Which of the following statements is one of the
strength of an autobiography as a technique for personality
appraisal?
a. It can replace data obtained from other data gathering
technique.
b. It may be read by unauthorized people.
c. It gives complete data about the author.
d. It makes possible presentation of intimate experiences.
Answer

124. The counselee revealed that she will commit suicide on
weekend. Can the counsellor reveal the secret to the parents?
a. Yes, it is mandatory that in cases involving suicide that
confidentiality is superseded.
b. No, the counsellor has no right.
c. Yes as long as he tells the parents that he is not the source.
d. No, It is unethical.
Answer

125. This is the pre-planned collection of sample of
student works, assessed results and other output
produced by the students.
a. Diary c. Observation Report
b. Portfolio d. Anecdotal Report
Answer

1. Answer: C. Formative
Assessment is given during or
after instruction to improve
learning and to get feedback
from the performance or
achievement of the students.
Back

Answer: D. Exactly 82.5% of
the students got the items
correctly. Hence teacher RC did
not attain his objectives
Back

Answer: A. To increase the
difficulty of a multiple-choice
test item, make options in the
same class or it must be
homogeneous.
Back

Answer: B. The standard set by
Teacher Y is 85% and Marivic
obtained 82% only, hence she
did not meet the standard by 3%
Back

Answer: D. Criterion-referenced is a type of
assessment in which the performance of the
students compared to a certain standard or
criterion. In this case, the performance of
the students will be compared to the
instructional objectives of the teacher.
Back

Answer: D. Objectivity, validity,
practically and efficiency,
reliability are all characteristics
of a good assessment instrument.
Back

Answer: B. Statements I, II and
IV are the different methods of
establishing reliability of a test.
Back

Answer: B. In developing a
matching type test item, the
descriptions and options must
be homogeneous.
Back

Answer: C. Mean performance is 40,
standard deviation is 6 and Markie’s
score is 45. The score of Markie is
within Mean +1standard deviation
which is 46 hence his performance is
above average. The score of Markie is
above the mean.
Back

Answer: B. Sentence completion
test, Word association test, Thematic
Apperception test are all projective
personality test while interview
cannot be considered a test perse.
Back

Answer: C. The main purpose of
administering a pre-test and post-
test is to measure the gains of
learning.
Back

Answer: B. Diagnostic
assessment is a form of
assessment in which one of the
purposes is to determine the
strengths and weaknesses of the
students.
Back

Answer: C. Non discriminating item is an
item that can’t discriminate the lower
performing group of students and upper
performing students. Hence, if nobody got
the correct answer or everybody got the
correct answer the item is said to be non
discriminating.
Back

Answer: A. Statements I, II, and
III describes the purposes of
portfolio assessment.
Back

Answer: D. Statements I, III and
IV are all guidelines in
developing a matching type of
test.
Back

Answer: C. Bell-shape
curve means that the scores
are normally distributed.
Back

Answer: B. This can be written
as P97 = 94 meaning 97% of Jay
R’s classmate got a score lower
than 94.
Back

Answer: B. Discriminating Index =
0.35, which means that it is positive
discrimination. Meaning, more
students from the upper group got the
item correctly than those students
from the lower group.
Back

Answer: D. Statement I,
II, III and IV are all
important in developing
scoring rubrics.
Back

Answer: Grading on the curve means, the
performance of the students in a certain test
is relative to the performance of the other
students. In other words, the performance of
a certain student is compared to the
performance of the other students.
Back

Answer: A. Norm–referenced interpretation
means, comparing the performance of the
students relative to the performance of
others. The statement, BJ performed better
in Mathematics than 85% of his classmate
means that BJ got a score higher than 85%
of his classmates.
Back

Answer: C. Compare and contrast
quartile deviation and standard
deviation is a synthesis level of
cognitive domain.
Back

Answer: D. Essay test allows
students to organize ideas in
accordance with their judgement
about a certain topic. Option A, B
and C are types of test that do not
need further explanation.
Back

Answer: C. The first
step in constructing a
test is to go back to the
instructional objectives.
Back

Answer: D. Test-retest allows the
students to memorize the
contents of the test because the
same test given twice to same
group of students.
Back

Answer: A. Anecdotal reports are
notes written by the teacher
regarding incidents at the
classroom that might needs
special attention in the future.
Back

Answer: C. The area of the normal curve
from -2SD to +2SD is approximately
95.44%. Illustration, from mean to 1SD is
34.13%; from mean to -1SD is also 34.13%.
From 1SD to 2SD is 13.59% ; from -1SD to
-2SD is 13.59%. Thus, the area under the
normal curve is 34.13% + 34.13%+13.59% =
95.44%.
Back

Answer: A. Negative
discrimination means that more
students from the lower group
got an item correctly than those
students in the upper group.
Back

Answer: A. Portfolio assessment is a
process of gathering multiple
indicators of student progress to
support course objectives in
dynamic, ongoing and collaborative
process.
Back

Answer: B. TOS
means Table of
Specifications
Back

Answer: D. Positively skewed
distribution means most of the
students got low scores.
Back

Answer: A. Negatively skewed
described a good performance of
the students. The students
performed well because most of
the examinees got high scores.
Back

Answer: B. Using the formula T score =
10z + 50 and solve for z by substitution.
The value of z=2, which means that the
distance from the mean is twice the
standard deviation.
Back

Answer: B. The computed r=0.92
which means that high positive
correlation. The higher the scores
in Mathematics, the higher scores
in Science.
Back

Answer: B. Mean is appropriate
when the distribution is
symmetrical while median is
appropriate when the distribution is
skewed.
Back

Answer: B. The number 20
in the distribution
represents mode and
median at the same time.
Back

Answer: D. ANOVA using F
test is statistical tool that is used
to test the significant difference
between three or more means.
Back

Answer: C. Standard deviation can be said that,
the larger the value of the standard deviation, on
the average the scores are far from the mean
value, thus scores are more scattered. On the other
hand, the smaller the value of the standard
deviation on the average the scores are closer to
the mean value, thus the scores are clustered
around the mean.
Back

Answer: A. An item with
difficulty index ranges 0-0.20,
the difficulty level is very
difficult. Hence, the students find
greatest difficulty index of 0.09.
Only 9% got the correct answer.
Back

Answer: B. The difficulty level
is moderately difficult and the
discriminating level is
discriminating, Therefore, the
item should be retained.
Back

Answer: A. Ritz Glenn performed
well in Math because the z-score in
math = 3.33 which means that his
score is 3.33 standard deviations
above the mean. While z-score in
English =-1. z-score in PEHM – 1.14.
Back

Answer: B. Ritz Glenn
is a logical type of
learner because he
performed well in math.
Back

Answer: C. The scores of the students in
English is most spread because the CV
in English = 2.06%, while CV of Math
= 1.76% and CV of PEHM = 1.90%.
While the scores in Math is less
dispersed.
Back

Answer: B. The SD of A=2.75, SD
of B=3.25 and the mean are equal.
Therefor, the scores in Set A is more
clustered around the mean than in
Set B. The smaller the value of SD,
on the average the scores are closer
to the mean.
Back

Answer: A. The test analyzed has a
positive discrimination index
because more students got the
answer correctly. There are 8
students from the upper group got
the item correctly.
Back

Answer: C. Option C is the most
effective distracter because there
are more students from the lower
group choose the incorrect
options
Back

Answer: C. The level of
difficulty is difficult
because the difficulty
index is 0.37
Back

Answer: C. Retain the test because
the difficulty index = 0.37 and
discriminating index = 0.33 which
is within the acceptable level.
Back

Answer: A. Statements I, III
and IV are all guidelines in
the Grading System of Dep.
Ed.
Back

Answer: D. The sum of all the
scores is 690 divided by 8 equal
to 86.25. Hence, the mean or
average value is 86.25.
Back

Answer: D. The first step in
constructing test items is to
identify the learning outcomes
or go back to the instructional
objectives.
Back

Answer: D. The descriptions and
options are not homogeneous, it consist
of three groups: name of presidents,
name of inventors and name of civil
right leader. In constructing matching
type of test the descriptions and options
must be homogeneous.
Back

Answer: C. To avoid ambiguity
writes the complete name of
persons among the options.
Back

Answer: D. Improves defective test
items is an example of application
level. While options A and B are
knowledge level of option C is an
example of comprehension level.
Back

Answer: B. Statements II, III, and IV
are all guidelines in constructing
matching type of test. While statement
I is a violation in the guidelines of
constructing a matching type test items.
Back

Answer: A. In constructing true false test
item you should avoid verbal clues and
specific determiner and avoid taking
statements directly from the book. Avoid
also: terms denoting indefinite degree or
amount, placing items in systematic order,
use of always or never, use of negatives in
stating the item.
Back

Answer: D. Extended essay test is the
best way to measure higher order of
cognitive learning objectives. It requires
student to plan their own answer and
express them in their own words.
Students have freedom to express their
individuality in the answers given and to
present more realistic answers.
Back

Answer: B . A short-answer item is
easy to write and can measure a broad
range of learning outcomes, It is not
adaptable in measuring complex
learning outcomes; it is tedious and
time consuming to score.
Back

Answer: A . Compute the z-score of each
subject, z-score in English = 0.86, z-
score in Mathematics = 0.40, z-score in
Music =-1.23, z-score in PE = 0.75. The
highest value of z-score is English, hence
Ritz performed best in English.
Back

Answer: D. Ritz Glenn
performed best in English,
hence he is a linguistic
type of learner.
Back

Answer: Ritz Glenn
performed very poor in Music
since the z-score = -1.23
which is the lowest among the
four subjects.
Back

Answer: B. The scores in Music is the
most dispersed. Compute the CV of each
subject. The larger the value of CV, the
dispersed the scores are. The smaller the
value of CV, the scores is less dispersed.
CV of English = 4.12%, CV of Music =
6.63%, CV of Mathematics – 5.15%, CV
of PE = 4.40%.
Back

Answer: A. The
scores in English is
less dispersed, The
CV = 4.12%
Back

Answer: B. the mean and the
median are equal when the
scores are normally
distributed.
Back

Answer: D. Mode is a kind of
measures of central tendency.
The other two kinds are mean
and median, while A,B,C are all
measures of variations.
Back

Answer: A. Range is a measure of
variations that easily affected by
the extreme scores because if
there is a changes in either the
highest score or lowest score the
value of the range also change.
Back

Answer: B. Mean easily affected by the
extreme score. When the lowest score
becomes lower, the mean value will be
pulled down and when the highest score
becomes higher the mean value will be
pulled up. Hence, changes in either
lowest or highest score cause a changes
in the mean value.
Back

Answer: D. Central Tendency
error was committed by the rater
if the rater tends to give average
scores by avoiding scores at the
lower end of upper end of the
scale.
Back

Answer: A. Generosity error was
committed by the rater if tends to
use the high end of the scale only or
the rater tends to give a high grades
to the performance of high
performing students/s.
Back

Answer: C. Checklist is the best
assessment techniques to assess the
objective,” Plans and designs an
experiment to be performed”.
Checklist is useful in assessing the
performance where the activities best
assess by observation rather than
testing
Back

Answer: B Norm-
reference grading means
grading on the curve
Back

Answer: C. The correlation
coefficient of r=0.95 is very
high positive correlation. Which
means that Mathematics score is
highly positive related to
English score.
Back

Answer: D. The most
appropriate to measure
student’s ability to organized
thoughts and ideas is through
the use of essay test.
Back

Answer: B. The score
distribution is bimodal
because there are two
modes. The modes are 24
and 39.
Back

Answer: C. Vinci set up his laboratory
experiment in 2 minutes is an example
of criterion reference interpretation.
Criterion reference interpretation
means that performance of the learner
is compared with a certain standard.
Back

Answer: A. Lord’s test score is higher
than 89% of the class is an example of
norm-referenced interpretation.
Norm-referenced interpretation means
that performance of the learner is
compared with the performance of
others in the class.
Back

Answer: D. Using table of
specification in constructing a test
items can improve the sampling of
contents of the entire test. You can
assure your students that the test has
content validity when using table of
specification in constructing test.
Back

Answer: A. The main purpose
of testing in teaching is to
evaluate the learning progress
of the students and assess
whether the instruction was
effective or not.
Back

Answer: C. Avoid using negative
words in constructing multiple-
choice test they might be
overlooked by the test takers. If
can’t be avoided bold it or type it
in capital letters to give emphasis.
Back

Answer: Norm-reference testing
means comparing the performance of
students to another students.
Ranking the students is an example
of comparing the performance of
students with the performance of
other students.
Back

Answer: A. To increase the
reliability of the test, the
teacher should give enough
number of test items.
Back

Answer: Performance
based assessment evaluate
complex learning outcomes
and encourages the
application of learning to
real life situation.
Back

Answer: D. Negative
discrimination means that
more students from the lower
group got an item correctly
than those students from the
upper group.
Back

Answer: A. Positively
skewed distribution means
most of the scores are low
and below the mean value.
Back

Answer: A. Skewed to the left
means that most of the scores
are above the mean. Hence the
graphical representation of the
scores is
Back

Answer: B. Negatively skewed
distribution describe a good
performance of the students. The
students performed well because
most of the examinees got scores
above the mean.
Back

Answer: D. Using the formula T
score = 10z + 50 and solve for z
by substitution. The value of z=3,
which means that the distance
above the mean is three time the
standard deviation.
Back

Answer: C. Skewed to right means
most of the students got scores
below the mean which means that
the examinees performed very
poor or most of the scores are low.
Back

Answer: B. Positive
discriminating power means
that more students in the
upper group got the item
correctly.
Back

Answer: D. Percentile rank of 93
means that 93% of the examinees
got a score below an indicated
score. Thus, Mary Ann surpassed
in performance 93% of those who
took the examination.
Back

Answer: C. The range of Set A
is 15 and the range if Set B is
12. Hence, the scores in Set A
are more scattered than those
scores in Set B.
Back

Answer: C. Determining the
effectiveness of the distracters. If a
teacher will conduct an item analysis
he/she should know the difficulty of
an item, discrimination of an item
and the attractiveness of the
distracters.
Back

Answer: B. The
difficulty index is 0.15.
The level of difficulty
is very difficult.
Back

Answer: B. 50% of
the scores lies in the
interval 26-30.
Back

Answer: D. There are
34% percent of the
scores lower than 21.
Back

Answer: B. 75% of the
students got item number
correctly. The level of
difficulty is easy.
Back

Answer: C. Conference is a form
of meeting or symposium for
public discussion of some topic
especially one in which the
participants form an audience
and make presentations and
assessments regarding what was
viewed.
Back

Answer: B. The standard deviation
indicates the number of units above
or below the mean. The standard
deviation in Mathematics is higher
than the standard deviation in
Science. Hence, Joseph performed
well in Mathematics than in Science.
Back

Answer: C. Exactly 80% of
the students answered the
items correctly. Hence
teacher Jenny attain her
objectives.
Back

Answer: A.
(90+88+93+95)
/ 4 = 91.75
Back

Answer: D. The method of
grading the involves the
present grade and the
previous grade to compute
the final grade is
cumulative method.
Back

Answer: B. To increase the
difficulty of a multiple-
choice test item, make
options in the same class or
the it must be
homogeneous
Back

Answer: B. Upper
group got more
correct answer.
Back

Answer: A. More students got the
item correctly from the upper
group than the lower group.
Hence it has a positive
discriminating power.
Back

Answer: B. Option B is the
most effective distracter
since more students from
the lower group choose the
incorrect option.
Back

Answer: C. Option C should be
revise because more students
from the upper group choose
this incorrect option. Hence it
is not effective.
Back

Answer: C. The difficulty
index is 50%. Therefore
the level of difficulty is
moderately difficult.
Back

Answer: C. The
discriminating index
is 7%. (16-14)/60 x
100% =7%
Back

Answer: D. Performance based
assessment emphasized on both
process and product. Hence the
statement emphasize only on
process is false about performance
based assessment.
Back

Answer: D.
Definition of z-
score.
Back

Answer: C. Authentic
assessment is an
assessment applying
real life situation.
Back

Answer: C. Essay test is the
most appropriate tool to
measure the synthesizing
skills of the students.
Back

Answer: A. Marking on a
normative basis follow the
normal distribution curve.
Back

Answer: A. The discriminating
index is 0.44 which means that
the item is very discriminating
and more students from the
upper group got the item
correctly.
Back

Answer: C. The difficulty level
is moderately difficult and the
discriminating level is low or
poor discriminating. Therefor,
the item should be revised.
Back

Answer: B. The discrimination
index is -0.15 which is negative,
hence more students form the
lower group got the item
correctly.
Back

Answer: B.
3(5) = x- 80
15 = x -80
15 + 80 = x
x =85
z= x-x
5
3= x-80
5
Back

Answer: C. The area of the normal cure
from -1SD to +2SD is approximately
68.26%. Illustration, from mean to 1SD is
34.13%; from mean to -1SD is also
34.13%. From 1SD to 2SD is 13.59%;
from -1SD to -2SD id 13.59%. Thus, the
area under the normal curve is 34.13% +
34.13% + 13.59% + 13.59% = 95.44%.
Back

Answer: C. t-test is utilized to
test the significant difference
between two means when n
less than or equal to 30,
otherwise use z-test.
Back

Answer: D. When the scores
concentrated at the left part of the
distribution it is skewed to the right
while the scores concentrated at the
right part of the distribution then it is
skewed to the left. Option A, B and C
deals with normal distribution.
Back

Answer: C. To compare the individual
performance of the students z score will
be utilized. It tells the number of
standard deviations below or above the
mean performance. The higher the
value of z score the better the
performance of a certain student is.
Back

Answer: A. Because
usually the students are
confused between
Guidance Counselor and
Prefect of Discipline.
Back

Answer: D. Because it
allows the author the share
intimate detail about his life.
Back

Answer: A. Because the
counselor break confidentiality
rule in cases of planned
suicide or planned
hurting/killing of somebody.
Back

Answer: C. Because
portfolio is a collection of
student output and
accomplishment is a period
of time.
Back

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