Pharmacology question and answer

PHARMACOLOGY
QUESTION BANK SOLVED
PREPARED BY:
FULCHAN A
FAROOQIA COLLEGE OF PHARMACY,MYSORE -21

PHARMACOLOGY
Q.1 Mention any four low molecular weight heparins.
Answer: include ardeparin (average molecular weight, 5500–65,000 Da),
bemiparin (average molecular weight, 3600 Da), certoparin (average molecular
weight, 5400 Da), dalteparin (average molecular weight, 6000 Da), enoxaparin
(average molecular weight, ...
Q.2 Mention antagonists for heparin and warfarin along with their uses.
Answer: Protamine--antagonist to heparin.
Protamine is used for titration of heparin in vitro for diagnosis of hemorrhagic
states and for neutralization of heparin in vivo to terminate heparinization
Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that is used as an oral anticoagulant agent
in the prevention and treatment of thromboembolic disorders and embolic
complications arising from atrial fibrillation or valve replacement

PHARMACOLOGY
Q.3 Write four therapeutic uses of anticoagulants.
Answer:
Atrial fibrillation.
Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
Hip or knee replacement surgery.
Ischemic stroke.
Myocardial infarction (heart attack)
Pulmonary embolism.
Unstable angina.

PHARMACOLOGY
Q4. Mention two common adverse effects and two contraindications of
anticoagulants.
Answer: Relative contraindications are bleeding abnormality (eg, thrombocytopenia,
platelet defect, peptic ulcer disease), CNS lesion (eg, stroke, surgery, trauma), spinal
anesthesia or lumbar puncture, malignant hypertension, and advanced retinopathy.
The most common side effect of treatment with anticoagulant medicine is bleeding.
Hair loss (alopecia)
Rash. ,Itching (pruritus)Changes is sense of taste. ,Fainting (syncope)Shortness of
breath. ,Low blood pressure (hypotension) , Chest pain.

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 5. Mention four oral anticoagulants.
Answer: Vitamin K anticoagulants. ...
Novel oral anticoagulants. ...
Dabigatran. ...
Rivaroxaban. ...
Apixaban. .
Q 6. What are Low Molecular Weight Heparins? Give two examples.
>Is a class of anticoagulant ,Low-molecular-weight heparins (LMWHs), for example,
dalteparin, enoxaparin, among others are anticoagulants.
Q6. Write significance of GP IIb/IIIa antagonists and give two examples.

PHARMACOLOGY
7. Write significance of GP IIb/IIIa antagonists and give two examples.
ANSWER: In medicine, glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors, also GpIIb/IIIa inhibitors, is a
class of antiplatelet agents , Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors are frequently used during
percutaneous coronary intervention (angioplasty with or without intracoronary stent
placement). They work by preventing platelet aggregation and thrombus formation.
They do so by inhibition of the GpIIb/IIIa receptor on the surface of the platelets.
Ex : abciximab (ReoPro)
eptifibatide (Integrilin)
tirofiban (Aggrastat)
Q 8. Write mechanism of antiplatelet action of aspirin.
Answer :Mechanism of action: Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) irreversibly inhibits
prostaglandin H synthase (cyclooxygenase-1) in platelets and megakaryocytes, and
thereby blocks the formation of thromboxane A2 (TXA2; a potent vasoconstrictor and
platelet aggregant).3 It is only the parent form, acetylsalicylic acid, which has

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 9. Write any four prophylactic uses of clopidogrel.
Answer: Clopidogrel is used to prevent heart attack and stroke in people who are at high risk of
these events, including those with a history of myocardial infarction and other forms of acute
coronary syndrome, stroke, and those with peripheral artery disease.
Q 10. Write mechanism of action of thrombolytic agents.
Answer : Thrombolytic drugs dissolve blood clots by activating plasminogen, which forms a
cleaved product called plasmin. Plasmin is a proteolytic enzyme that is capable of breaking
cross-links between fibrin molecules, which provide the structural integrity of blood clots.

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 11. Name four fibrinolytic agents.
ANSWER : Four fibrinolytic agents are approved for the treatment of STEMI in the United
States-streptokinase, alteplase, reteplase, and tenecteplase.
Q 12. What are plasma expanders? Give two examples.
Answer : Plasma expanders are agents that have relatively high molecular weight and boost
the plasma volume by increasing the osmotic pressure. They are used to treat patients who
have suffered hemorrhage or shock.
Ex : normal saline (0.9% NaCl) or lactated Ringer's solution. Colloids include Haemaccel,
Gelofusin and the naturally occurring plasma substances (albumin, plasma protein fraction)
,dextrane

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 13. Name two plasma expanders. Mention their uses.
Answer: Plasma expanders are agents that have relatively high molecular weight and boost the plasma
volume by increasing the osmotic pressure. They are used to treat patients who have suffered
hemorrhage or shock.
High-molecular weight dextran is a plasma volume expander made from natural sources of sugar
(glucose). It works by restoring blood plasma lost through severe bleeding. Severe blood loss can
decrease oxygen levels and can lead to organ failure, brain damage, coma,
Q 14. What is megaloblastic anaemia ? Mention two drugs used in its treatment.
Answer: Megaloblastic anemia is an anemia (of macrocytic classification) that results from inhibition of
DNA synthesis during red blood cell production. ... The defect in red cell DNA synthesis is most often
due to hypovitaminosis , specifically vitamin B12 deficiency or folate deficiency. Treatments
Cyanocobalamin (vitamin B-12) is used to correct vitamin B-12 deficiency and folic acid
is used to treat folic acid deficiencies.

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 15. What is microcytic hypochromic Anaemia ? Mention two drugs used in its
treatment.
Answer : Microcytic anemia is defined as the presence of small,
often hypochromic, red blood cells in a peripheral blood smear and is usually
characterized by a low MCV (less than 83 micron 3). Iron deficiency is the most
common cause of microcytic anemia.
Treatments: Your doctor may recommend that you take iron and vitamin C
supplements. The iron will help treat the anemia while the vitamin C will help
increase your body's ability to absorb the iron.
Drug name: ferrous sulphate , folic acid , leucovorin

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 16. What are haematopoetic growth factors? Give two examples.
Answer: Hematopoietic growth factors are a family of regulatory molecules that play
important roles in the growth, survival, and differentiation of blood progenitor cells,
as well as in the functional activation of mature cells. ... In addition, several
other hematopoietic cytokines are under clinical development
Ex They include interleukin-3 (IL-3), granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF),
granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF), macrophage colony-
stimulating factor (M-CSF) and erythropoietin (EPO).
Q 17. Mention four parenteral iron preparations
Answer:. The appropriate type, amount, and frequency of iron injections are
determined for each individual patient based on the severity of the iron deficiency
and the ability to tolerate the treatment. Iron injections comprise four major
types: iron sucrose, iron dextran, sodium ferric gluconate, and ferumoxytol.

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 18. Write indications for parenteral iron preparations.
Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia with intolerance of oral iron, especially in
inflammatory bowel disease, or where oral iron is ineffective.
To support the use of erythropoiesis stimulating agents (including patients on renal
dialysis)
Pharmacology of Drugs acting on Blood and blood forming agents = completed

PHARMACOLOGY
DrugsactingonRenalSystem
Q 1. Name four vasopressin analogues?
Answer : Vasopressin analogues are chemicals similar in function but not necessarily similar in
structure to vasopressin (ADH), such as desmopressin , terlipressin , lypressin
Q 2. Name any two ADH and its two uses.
Answer: vasopressin
a] lypressin
B] desmopressin
Uses: antidiuretics
Desmopressin is also used to control nighttime bedwetting in children

PHARMACOLOGY
3. Define carbonic anhydrase inhibitors? Give two examples
Answer: Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors reduce the activity of carbonic anhydrase, an
enzyme responsible for catalyzing the reaction between carbon dioxide and water
into carbonic acid and then bicarbonate. ... Acetazolamide, dichlorphenamide, and
methazolamide are carbonic anhydrase inhibitors.
Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor. Other examples are; Dorzolamide.
Methazolamide.

PHARMACOLOGY Fulchan a
Q 4. What are osmotic diuretics? Write their uses.
Answer : They increase the osmolarity of blood and renal filtrate.
Two examples are mannitol and isosorbide. In the nephron, osmotic diuretics act
at the portions of the nephron that are water-permeable. Osmotic diuretics works by
expanding extracellular fluid and plasma volume, therefore increasing blood flow
to the kidney.
Uses : clinical uses include early stages of oliguria, early phases of brain edema, and
postischemic acute renal failure. It is also commonly used in neurosurgical anesthesia
to provide good operating conditions

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 5. Classify diuretics showing their site of action in nephron .
Answer : Diuretics may be classified according to their chemical structure, their
mechanism and site of action within the nephron, and their diuretic potency. ... These agents,
spironolactone, amiloride and triamterene, differ not only chemically but in their mechanisms
of action. Diuretics may also be grouped according to potency
Q 6. Write four uses of potassium sparing diuretics.
Answer: Potassium-sparing diuretics are diuretic drugs that do not promote the secretion
of potassium into the urine. They are used as adjunctive therapy, together with other drugs,
in the treatment of hypertension and management of congestive heart failure.
Examples of potassium-sparing diuretics include: Amiloride. Eplerenone (Inspra)
Spironolactone (Aldactone) Triamterene (Dyrenium)

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 7. Enlist potassium sparing diuretics.
Answer: Potassium sparing diuretics examples
Amiloride.
Triamterene.
Eplerenone.
Spironolactone.
Q 8. Mention four uses of thiazide diuretics.
Answer : Thiazide diuretics are used to treat high blood pressure and congestive heart failure
as well as the accumulation of fluid and swelling (edema) of the body caused by conditions
such as heart failure, cirrhosis, chronic kidney failure, corticosteroid medications, and
nephrotic syndrome.

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 9. Give four indications for loop diuretics.
Answer:Indications
Hypertension.
Edema treatment. Cardiac (acute and congestive heart failure, peripheral edema, lung
edema) ...
Renal failure(acute and chronic)
Forced diuresis. Definition: massive diuresis for forced renal elimination of (toxic)
substances. ...
Sequential nephron blockade.

Q 10. Mention four adverse effects of diuretics.
Answer : too little potassium in the blood.
too much potassium in the blood (for potassium-sparing diuretics)
low sodium levels.
headache.
dizziness.
thirst.
increased blood sugar.
muscle cramps.

PHARMACOLOGY
3 CHEMOTHERAPY
Q 1. What is superinfection?
Answer : Superinfection is the process by which a cell that has previously been infected by
one virus gets co-infected with a different strain of the virus, or another virus, at a later point
in time. Viral superinfections may be resistant to the antiviral drug or drugs that were being
used to treat the original infection.
An example of a superinfection is having an ear infection caused by microorganisms which are
resistent to the antibiotics taken for a recent throat infection.
Q 2. What is multidrug therapy? Give example.
Answer: The drugs used in WHO-MDT are a combination of rifampicin,
clofazimine and dapsone for MB leprosy patients and rifampicin and dapsone for PB leprosy
patients. Among these rifampicin is the most important antileprosy drug and therefore is
included in the treatment of both types of leprosy.
Ex: M.leprae dapsone+rifampicin

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 3. What is grey baby syndrome?
Answer : Gray baby syndrome: A syndrome due to toxicity of the antibiotic chloramphenicol
in the newborn, especially the premature newborn, because of lack the necessary liver
enzymes to metabolize this drug. ... Chloramphenicol is therefore usually not given to
newborns or premature babies.
Q 4. Enlist the drugs causing ototoxicity?
Answer : Ototoxic drugs include antibiotics such as gentamicin, streptomycin, tobramycin,
loop diuretics such as furosemide and platinum-based chemotherapy agents such as
cisplatin, carboplatin, and vincristine. A number of nonsteroidal anti-
inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS) have also been shown to be ototoxic.

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 5. Enlist the drugs causing nephrotoxicity?
Answer : The most common drugs that cause DIKD include antibiotics, anti-
rejection medications, antiviral agents, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents, anti-ulcer
agents and chemotherapy. Most studies have defined nephrotoxicity as 0.5 mg/dL or 50% rise
in Scr over 24–72 h time frame and a minimum 24–48 h of drug exposure.
Q 6. What is anaphylaxis?
Answer:Anaphylaxis (an-a-fi-LAK-sis) is a serious, life-threatening allergic reaction. The most
common anaphylactic reactions are to foods, insect stings, medications and latex. If you are
allergic to a substance, your immune system overreacts to this allergen by releasing
chemicals that cause allergy symptoms.

Q 7. What are the drugs used in treatment of tapeworm infection?
Answer:The most common treatment for tapeworm infection involves oral medications that
are toxic to the adult tapeworm, including:
Praziquantel (Biltricide)
Albendazole (Albenza)
Nitazoxanide (Alinia)
Q 8. What are the drugs used in treatment of round worm infection?
Answer:Anthelminthic medications (drugs that rid the body of parasitic worms), such as
albendazole and mebendazole, are the drugs of choice for treatment of Ascaris infections,
regardless of the species of worm.

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 9. What are the drugs used in filariasis?
Answer: Diethylcarbamazine (Hetrazan)
Diethylcarbamazine (DEC) is commonly used in lymphatic filariasis and acts as both a
microfilaricidal and macrofilaricidal agent. Doxycycline
Q 10. Which are the causative organisms of filariasis?
Answer: Lymphatic filariasis is caused by the worms Wuchereria bancrofti, Brugia
malayi, and Brugia timori. These worms occupy the lymphatic system, including the
lymph nodes; in chronic cases, these worms lead to the syndrome of elephantiasis.

Q 11. What is amoebiasis? Name two drugs used in the treatment of amebiasis?
Answer:Amebiasis is a parasitic infection of the intestines caused by the protozoan
Entamoeba histolytica, or E. histolytica. The symptoms of amebiasis include loose stool,
abdominal cramping, and stomach pain
Gastrointestinal amebiasis is treated with nitroimidazole drugs, which kill amoebas in the
blood, in the wall of the intestine and in liver abscesses. These drugs include metronidazole
(Flagyl) and tinidazole (Tindamax, Fasigyn).
Q 12. Enlist the four uses of tetracyclines/doxycycline/oxytetracyclin
Answer: Tetracycline is used to treat many different bacterial infections of the skin, intestines,
respiratory tract, urinary tract, genitals, lymph nodes, and other body systems. It is
often used in treating severe acne, or sexually transmitted diseases such as syphilis,
gonorrhea, or chlamydia

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 13. Enlist the four toxic effects of chlormphenicol.
Answer: The most serious side effect of chloramphenicol treatment is aplastic ... bone
marrow suppression during treatment , headache.
,altered mental status , confusion.
Q 14. Name the causative organisms of malaria.
Answer: Malaria is caused by parasites of the Plasmodium genus. Four species of
Plasmodium can infect humans: P. vivax, P. ovale, P. malariae and P. falciparum.
Infection is most commonly caused by P. vivax or P. falciparum, the latter causing the
most severe form of malaria

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 15. Name the opportunistic infections in HIV.
Answer: cryptococcal meningitis.
toxoplasmosis. PCP (a type of pneumonia) , oesophageal candidiasis.
certain cancers, including Kaposi's sarcoma
Q 16. What is multidrug regimen for the treatment of TB and name the drugs.
Answer: Multidrug-resistant TB (MDR-TB) is TB that does not respond to at least isoniazid and
rifampicin, the 2 most powerful anti-TB drugs. ... Most people with TB are cured by a strictly
followed, 6-month drug regimen that is provided to patients with support and supervision.
Among the first group (the oral first-line drugs) high-dose isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and
ethambutol

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 17. What is DOTS therapy?
Answer : Directly observed treatment, short-course is the name given to the
tuberculosis control strategy recommended by the World Health Organization.
According to WHO, "The most cost-effective way to stop the spread of TB in
communities with a high incidence is by curing it.
Q 18. Mention β-lactamase inhibitors. Mention their use.
Answer: The most important use of beta-lactamase inhibitors is in the treatment of
infections known or believed to be caused by gram-negative bacteria, as beta-
lactamase production is an important contributor to beta-lactam resistance in these
pathogens. Clavulanic acid, sulbactam, and tazobactam are all beta-lactamase
inhibitors.

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 19. Mention any four blood schizonticides.
Answer : Blood schizonticides: These drugs act on the blood forms of the parasite and
thereby terminate clinical attacks of malaria. These are the most important drugs in
anti malarial chemotherapy. These include chloroquine, quinine, mefloquine,
halofantrine, pyrimethamine, sulfadoxine, sulfones, tetracyclines etc.
Q 20. What is chemoprophylaxis? Give examples.
Answer:Examples of effective chemoprophylaxis: Penicillin G prevents infection by
group-A streptococci. Intermittent use of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole prevents
recurrent urinary tract infections. Prevention of endocarditis in patients with valvular
heart lesions who are to undergo a surgical procedure. Chemoprevention
(also chemoprophylaxis) refers to the administration of a medication for the purpose of
preventing disease or infection. Antibiotics, for example, may be administered to
patients with disorders of immune system function to prevent bacterial infections
(particularly opportunistic infection).

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 21. Write uses of griseofulvin.
Answer: Griseofulvin is class of antifungal drug which is used to treat infections such as
ringworm, athlete's foot, jock itch, and fungal infections of the scalp, fingernails, or toenails
Q 22. Mention DHFR inhibitors. Write their uses.
Answer:DHFR inhibitors are commonly used for fighting malaria and other protozoal
infections, as well as for treating fungal, bacterial, and mycobacterial infections [3]. ...
Methotrexate inhibits DHFR with a high affinity, thus reducing the amount of
tetrahydrofolates required for the synthesis of pyrimidine and purines.
Dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR) inhibitors. Trimethoprim. Pyrimethamine. Chloroguanide or
Proguanil. Pentamidine.

Q 23. What are probiotics? Give examples.
Answer: Probiotics are live bacteria and yeasts that are good for you, especially your
digestive system. ... But your body is full of bacteria, both good and
bad. Probiotics are often called "good" or "helpful" bacteria because they help keep
your gut healthy
Ex Foods that contain probiotics include: some juices and soy drinks; fermented and
unfermented milk; buttermilk; some soft cheeses; miso; tempeh; kefir; kimchi;
sauerkraut; many pickles and yogurt

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 24. What is crystaluria? How can it be prevented?
Answer:Crystalluria refers to cloudy urine when the cause of cloudiness is due to crystals found in the
urine when performing a urine test. Crystalluria is considered often as a benign condition and as one of
the side effects of sulfonamides and penicillins.
To prevent crystalluria, patients receiving high-dose ciprofloxacin should be well hydrated and alkalinity
of the urine should be avoided
Q 25. Mention four adverse effects of anti-cancer drugs.
Answer:Low blood counts causes an increased possibility of developing infection or anemia.
Tiredness.
Mouth soreness.
Nausea, vomiting.
Loss of appetite.
Constipation or diarrhea.
Hair loss.
Skin changes or reactions.

PHARMACOLOGY
Immunopharmacology
Q 1. Enlist four immunostimulants
Answer: Types of Immunostimulants
bacterial vaccines.
colony stimulating factors.
interferons.
interleukins.
other immunostimulants.
therapeutic vaccines.
vaccine combinations.
viral vaccines.

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 2. Write uses of immunostimulants
Answer: Immunostimulants can enhance body's resistance against various infections
through increasing the basal levels of immune response. These agents could increase
the oxidative activity of neutrophils, augment engulfment activity of phagocytic cells,
and stimulate cytotoxic cells as necessary defense mechanisms.
Q 3. What are Colony-Stimulating Factors? Write their specific use.
Answer: Colony stimulating factors are glycoproteins that promote production of
white blood cells (mainly granulocytes such as neutrophils), in response to infection.
Administration of exogenous colony stimulating factors stimulates the stem cells
in the bone marrow to produce more of the particular white blood cells.

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 4. What are Interferons? Give examples.
Answer:interferon alfa-2a (Roferon-A)
interferon alfa-2b (Intron-A )
interferon alfa-n3 (Alferon-N)
peginterferon alfa-2b (PegIntron , Sylatron)
interferon beta-1a (Avonex )
interferon beta-1a (Rebif)
interferon beta-1b (Betaseron)
interferon beta-1b (Extavia)
Interferons are a group of signaling proteins made and released by host cells in response to the
presence of several viruses. In a typical scenario, a virus-infected cell will release interferons causing
nearby cells to heighten their anti-viral defenses

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 5. Write indications for recombinant interferons.
Answer:Hairy Cell Leukemia. INTRON® A is indicated for the treatment of patients 18
years of age or older with hairy cell leukemia.
Malignant Melanoma. ...
Follicular Lymphoma. ...
Condylomata Acuminata. ...
AIDS-Related Kaposi's Sarcoma. ...
Chronic Hepatitis C. ...
Chronic Hepatitis B.

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 6. What is Levamisole? Write its uses.
Answer:Levamisole, sold under the trade name Ergamisol among others, is a
medication used to treat parasitic worm infections. Specifically it is used for ascariasis
and hookworm infections. It is taken by mouth. Side effects may include abdominal
pain, vomiting, headache, and dizziness.
Q 7. Outline mechanism of action of Cyclosporin.
Answer:Cyclosporine is a potent immunomodulatory agent with an increasing number
of clinical applications. Its major mode of action is inhibition of the production of
cytokines involved in the regulation of T-cell activation. In
particular, cyclosporine inhibits the transcription of interleukin 2.

Q 8. Mention calcineurin inhibitors. Write their uses.
Answer:cyclosporine , tacrolimus ,,,,,,Calcineurin inhibitors are medicines which
inhibit the action of calcineurin. Calcineurin is an enzyme that activates T-cells of the
immune system. ... Topical calcineurin inhibitors (pimecrolimus, tacrolimus) may be
used to treat inflammatory skin conditions such as atopic dermatitis when other
treatments have failed.

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 9. What are cytotoxic agents? Write their significance in immunology.
Answer: Cytotoxic drugs or cytostatics (also cytotoxic chemotherapy) are drugs used to
destroy cancer cells. Cytotoxic drugs inhibit cell division and in this way cause cancer cells to
die. Cytotoxic drugs are transported in the bloodstream throughout the body. Significant
……Cytotoxic drugs prevent cell division or cause cell death.1 They act predominantly on
rapidly dividing cells such as T lymphocytes, and are therefore immunosuppressive and anti-
inflammatory.
Q 10. Write briefly on immunosuppressant actions of Glucocorticoids.
Answer:Glucocorticoids are a group of drugs with various anti-inflammatory
and immunosuppressant as well as metabolic and endocrine effects. ... However, they exert
their main anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive actions by binding
to glucocorticoid receptors, which, in turn, causes complex changes in gene transcription.

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 11. Write uses of Glucocorticoids as immunosuppressants.
Answer:Glucocorticoids. In pharmacologic (supraphysiologic) doses, glucocorticoids,
such as prednisone, dexamethasone, and hydrocortisone are used to suppress various
allergic, inflammatory, and autoimmune disorders.
Q 12. Write uses of Tacrolimus.
Answer:Uses. This form of tacrolimus is used on the skin to treat a skin condition
called eczema (atopic dermatitis) in patients who have not responded well to (or
should not use) other eczema medications. Eczema is an allergic-type condition that
causes red, irritated, and itchy skin.

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 13. Mention immunosuppressant monoclonal antibodies.
Answer: monoclonal antibody such as infliximab (Remicade), adalimumab (Humira),
certolizumab pegol (Cimzia), and golimumab (Simponi)
DOUBT

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 14. Enlist cytokine inhibitors.
Answer: The main cytokine inhibitors include interleukin-1 receptor antagonist (IL-
1ra), soluble IL-1 receptor (sIL-1R), soluble TNF-alpha receptors (soluble TNF-Rs), and
certain cytokines, such as IL-4, TGF beta, and IL-10.
Q 15. How does cyclophosphamide produce immunosuppression?
Answer:Cyclophosphamide is an alkylating agent belonging to the group of
oxazaphosporines. ... Of special interest is the fact that a single administration of low-
dose cyclophosphamide is able to selectively suppress regulatory T cells (Tregs). This
effect can be used to counteract immunosuppression in cancer

Q 16. Define immunostimulant and immunosuppressant with two examples.
Answer:Immunosuppressant drugs are a class of drugs that suppress, or reduce, the
strength of the body's immune system. Some of these drugs are used to make the
body less likely to reject a transplanted organ, such as a liver, heart, or kidney. These
drugs are called antirejection drugs. Ex: Azathioprine (Imuran) ...
Mycophenolate mofetil (Cellcept) ...
Immunostimulants, also known as immunostimulators, are substances (drugs and
nutrients) that stimulate the immune system by inducing activation or increasing
activity of any of its components. One notable example is the granulocyte
macrophage colony-stimulating factor.

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 17. What is Thymosin? Mention its therapeutic uses.
Answer: Thymosins are small proteins present in many animal tissues. They are
named thymosins because they were originally isolated from the thymus, but most
are now known to be present in many other tissues.
Thymosin α1 as a Therapy of HCC
Besides its use in the prevention of HCC in chronic hepatitis B and C, Tα1 has also
been used in therapeutic treatment of HCC. ... Several studies have been performed
to assess the use of Tα1 in unresectable HCC

Q 18. What are mTOR inhibitors? Give examples.
Answer: mTOR inhibitors are a class of drugs that inhibit the mammalian target of
rapamycin, which is a serine/threonine-specific protein kinase that belongs to the
family of phosphatidylinositol-3 kinase related kinases
Ex Rapamune (Pro) Generic name: sirolimus
Torisel (Pro) Generic name: temsirolimu
Afinitor (Pro) Generic name: everolimus

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 19. What are TNF – α inhibitors? Give examples.
Answer:A TNF inhibitor is a pharmaceutical drug that suppresses the physiologic response to
tumor necrosis factor, which is part of the inflammatory response
Ex:Examples. Inhibition of TNF effects can be achieved with a monoclonal antibody such as
infliximab (Remicade), adalimumab (Humira), certolizumab pegol (Cimzia), and golimumab
(Simponi), or with a circulating receptor fusion protein such as etanercept (Enbrel).
Q 20. What are Interleukins? Mention their inhibitors.
Answer:Interleukins are a group of cytokines that were first seen to be expressed by white
blood cells. ILs can be divided into four major groups based on distinguishing structural
features. However, their amino acid sequence similarity is rather weak
group of cytokines which are synthesized by lymphocytes, monocytes, macrophages,

PHARMACOLOGY
Principles of Animal toxicology
Q 1. Define toxicology.
Answer:Toxicology is a scientific discipline, overlapping with biology, chemistry, pharmacology,
and medicine, that involves the study of the adverse effects of chemical substances on living
organisms and the practice of diagnosing and treating exposures to toxins and toxicants.
Q 2. What is OECD 420 guidelines? Write its significance in toxicity studies.
Answer:1. OECD Guidelines for the Testing of Chemicals are periodically reviewed in the light
of scientific progress or changing assessment practices. The original Guideline 420 was
adopted in July 1992 as the first alternative to the conventional acute toxicity test, described
in Test Guideline 401.
Significant: The chronic toxicity study provides information on the possible health hazards
likely to arise from repeated exposure over a considerable part of the lifespan of the species
used. The study will provide information on the toxic effects of the substance, indicate target
organs and the possibility of accumulation.

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 3. Explain the term acute toxicity.
Answer: Acute toxicity describes the adverse effects of a substance that result either from a single exposure
or from multiple exposures in a short period of time (usually less than 24 hours). To be described as acute
toxicity, the adverse effects should occur within 14 days of the administration of the substance.
Q 4. Explain the term subacute toxicity.
Answer: Subacute toxicity is an adverse effect occurring as a result of repeated daily dosing of a chemical, or
exposure to the chemical, over a period of several days or weeks [3]. From: Toxicological Survey of African
Medicinal Plants, 2014.
Q 5. Explain the term chronic toxicity.
Answer: Chronic toxicity is the development of adverse effects as the result of long term exposure to a
toxicant or other stressor. It can manifest as direct lethality but more commonly refers to sublethal
endpoints such as decreased growth, reduced reproduction, or behavioral changes such as impacted
swimming performance.

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 6. What four objective of special toxicity?
Q 7. Define therapeutic index.
Answer: The therapeutic index (TI; also referred to as therapeutic ratio) is a
quantitative measurement of the relative safety of a drug. It is a comparison of the
amount of a therapeutic agent that causes the therapeutic effect to the amount that
causes toxicity. Therapeutic index

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 8. What is difference between acute and chronic toxicity studies with examples.
Answer: Acute toxicity appears within hours or days of an exposure, whereas chronic
toxicity takes many months or years to become a recognizable clinical disease.
Acute :For example, hydrogen cyanide is a highly toxic substance; acute exposure at relatively
low doses can result in death.
Chronic: examples of chronic toxicity: Inhalation of certain acid vapours at concentrations
may, over long periods of time, cause loss of tooth enamel, eventually leading to extensive
tooth decay.
Q 9. Mention OECD guidelines used for determination LD50.
Answer:The LD50 (the lethal dose for 50 percent of the animals tested) of a poison is usually
expressed in milligrams of chemical per kilogram of body weight (mg/kg). ... The danger, or
risk of adverse effect of chemicals, is mostly determined by how they are used, not by the
inherent toxicity of the chemical itself.

PHARMACOLOGY
The dynamic cell: The structures and
functions of the components of the cell
Q 1. Mention the cell signal transduction pathways.
Answer:The majority of signal transduction pathways involve the binding of signaling molecules, known
as ligands, to receptors that trigger events inside the cell. The binding of a signaling molecule with a
receptor causes a change in the conformation of the receptor, known as receptor activation.
Q 2. Name the methods of communication between the cells.
Answer:The three basic methods are: juxtacrine signaling for direct contact; paracrine signaling for
short distances; and endocrine signaling... Communication between cells occurs on a wide variety of
levels, from biological hormone transfer to electrical impulses transmitted between nerves.
Q 3. Name the subcellular organelles.
Answer:Subcellular organelles are bathed by cytosol and include – nucleus, mitochondria, endoplasmic
reticulum, ribosomes golgi apparatus (golgi complex), lysosomes, peroxisomes, and cytoskeleton.

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 4. What are cytokines?
Answer:Cytokines are a broad and loose category of small proteins that are important
in cell signaling. Cytokines are peptides, and cannot cross the lipid bilayer of cells to
enter the cytoplasm. Cytokines have been shown to be involved in autocrine,
paracrine and endocrine signaling as immunomodulating agents.
Q 5. What is prometaphase?
Answer:Prometaphase is the phase of mitosis following prophase and preceding
metaphase, in eukaryotic somatic cells. In prometaphase, the nuclear membrane
breaks apart into numerous "membrane vesicles", and the chromosomes inside form
protein structures called kinetochores

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 6. Enlist the cell cycle checkpoints.
Answer : There are three major checkpoints in the cell cycle: one near the end of G1, a second
at the G2/M transition, and the third during metaphase. Positive regulator molecules allow
the cell cycle to advance to the next stage.
Q 7. What is anaphase?
Answer:Anaphase, is the stage of mitosis after the process of metaphase, when replicated
chromosomes are split and the newly-copied chromosomes are moved to opposite poles of
the cell.
Q 8. What is zygotene?
Answer : the second stage of prophase in meiosis, during which strands of homologous
chromosomes line up and become pairs.

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 9. What is telophase?
Answer : Telophase is the final stage in both meiosis and mitosis in a eukaryotic cell. During
telophase, the effects of prophase and prometaphase are reversed.
Q 10. What is diplotene?
Answer : Prophase is the first stage of cell division in both mitosis and meiosis. Beginning
after interphase, DNA has already been replicated when the cell enters prophase. The main
occurrences in prophase are the condensation of the chromatin and the disappearance of
the nucleolus.
Q 11. What is diakinesis?
Answer:the stage of first meiotic prophase, in which the nucleolus and nuclear envelope disa
ppear and the spindle fibers form.

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 12. Differentiate between Eukaryotic and Prokaryotic chromosome.
Answer : Eukaryotic chromosomes are larger than that of prokaryotes. Prokaryotic
chromosome contains a covalently closed circular DNA (cccDNA). Each eukaryotic
chromosome contains a linear DNA with two ends. Prokaryotic chromosomes codes
for few proteins.
Q 13. Name cell cycle regulators and modifiers.
Answer: 1)Cyclins 2) Checkpoints and regulators in a doubt
Q 14. What are Biosensors?
Answer:A biosensor is an analytical device, used for the detection of a chemical
substance, that combines a biological component with a physicochemical detector.

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 15. Outline the principle of biosensors.
Answer : The desired biological material (usually a specific enzyme) is immobilized by
conventional methods (physical or membrane entrapment, non- covalent or covalent
binding). This immobilized biological material is in intimate contact with the
transducer. The analyte binds to the biological material to form a bound analyte
which in turn produces the electronic response that can be measured.
Q 16. Write qualities of an ideal biosensor.
Answer:

PHARMACOLOGY
Q :17. Differentiate between DNA and RNA.
DNA is a double-stranded molecule while RNA is a single-stranded molecule. DNA is
stable under alkaline conditions while RNA is not stable. ... DNA and RNA base pairing
is slightly different since DNA uses the bases adenine, thymine, cytosine, and
guanine; RNA uses adenine, uracil, cytosine, and guanine
Q 18. Define genome.
Answer : In the fields of molecular biology and genetics, a genome is the genetic
material of an organism. It consists of DNA. The genome includes both the genes and
the noncoding DNA, as well as mitochondrial DNA and chloroplast DNA. The study of
the genome is called genomics

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 19. Draw a diagram of cell cycle.
Answer:

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 20. Write the chromatin structure.
Anwer:

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 21. Write four applications of biosensors.
Answer :The four applications are: (1) Applications in Medicine and Health
(2) Applications in Industry (3) Applications in Pollution Control and (4) Applications in
Military. Biosensors have become very popular in recent years. They are widely used
in various fields.
Q 22. Mention the contributions of P38 in cellular processes.
Answer:Mitogen-activated protein kinases (MAPKs) are proline-directed serine and
threonine protein kinases that regulate many physiological and
pathophysiological cell responses. ... p38 MAPK signaling plays an essential role in
regulating cellular processes, especially inflammation.

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 23. Give reasons for activation of P53 factor.
Answer :p53 becomes activated in response to myriad stressors, including but not limited to DNA damage
(induced by either UV, IR, or chemical agents such as hydrogen peroxide), oxidative stress, osmotic shock,
ribonucleotide depletion, and deregulated oncogene expression. This activation is marked by two major
events.
Q 24. Mention stages of mitosis.
Answer :Phases of mitosis. Mitosis consists of four basic phases: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and
telophase. Some textbooks list five, breaking prophase into an early phase (called prophase) and a
late phase (called prometaphase).
Q 25. What is karyokinesis and cytokinesis?
Answer :Karyokinesis : Division of the nucleus during the cell cycle. Karyokinesis is usually followed
by cytokinesis. Cytokinesis : The division of the cytoplasm to form two separate daughter cells immediately
after mitosis.

PHARMACOLOGY
The dynamic cell: The gene
Q 1. Name the components of gene.
Answer :DNA. The vast majority of organisms encode their genes in long strands of DNA (deoxyribonucleic
acid). DNA consists of a chain made from four types of nucleotide subunits, each composed of: a five-carbon
sugar (2-deoxyribose), a phosphate group, and one of the four bases adenine, cytosine, guanine, and
thymine.
Q 2. Write difference between gene mapping and sequencing.
Answer:Gene mapping is used to locate the exact position of the gene and their arrangement; thus finding
the locus of the gene. However, Gene sequencing is performed to know the sequence of the gene which
codes for the interested protein. Thus, both of the methods are different.
Q 3. Mention any four methods of DNA sequencing.
Answer :The seven important methods used for DNA sequencing are: (1) Sanger's Method (2) Maxam and
Gilbert Method (3) Hybridization Method (4) Pal Nyren's Method (5) Automatic DNA Sequencer (6) Slab
Gel Sequencing Systems and (7) Capillary Gel Electrophoresis.

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 4. What are OKAZAKI fragments?
Answer : Okazaki fragments are short sequences of DNA nucleotides which are synthesized discontinuously and later
linked together by the enzyme DNA ligase to create the lagging strand during DNA replication.
Q 5. What are leading and lagging strands.
Answer :When replication begins, the two parent DNA strands are separated. One of these is called the leading strand,
and it is replicated continuously in the 3' to 5' direction. The other strand is the lagging strand, and it is replicated
discontinuously in short sections.
Q 6. Name the components of promoter sequence.
Answer :There are three main portions that make up a promoter: core promoter, proximal promoter, and
distal promoter. Below describes the specifics of these regions in eukaryotic cells.
Q 7. Write the significance of sense and nonsense strands in DNA.
answer: Only one strand is actively used as a template in the transcription process, this is known as the sense strand, or
template strand. The complementary DNA strand, the one that is not used, is called the nonsense or antisense strand.

PHARMACOLOGY
In genetics, a sense strand, or coding strand, is the segment within double-
stranded DNA that runs from 5' to 3', and which is complementary to the
antisense strand of DNA, or template strand, which runs from 3' to
5'.Antisense strand serves as the source for the protein code with bases
complementary to the DNA sense ...
Nonsense: see previous slide
Q 8. What is Chargorff ‘s rule?
answer:Chargaff's rules state that DNA from any cell of any organisms should have a
1:1 ratio of pyrimidine and purine bases and, more specifically, that the amount of
guanine should be equal to cytosine and the amount of adenine should be equal to
thymine. This pattern is found in both strands of the DNA

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 9. What are oncogenes? Give examples.
Answer :An oncogene is a gene that has the potential to cause cancer. In tumor cells,
these genes are often mutated, or expressed at high levels. Most normal cells will
undergo a programmed form of rapid cell death when critical functions are altered
and malfunctioning.
Ex:Receptor tyrosine kinases – Examples of oncogenes in this class include the
epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), platelet-derived growth factor receptor
(PDGFR), vascular endothelial growth factor receptor (VEGFR) and human epidermal
growth factor receptor 2 (HER2/neu)

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 10. Write the significance of repetitive and non repetitive sequences in a gene.
Answer :Repeated sequences (also known as repetitive elements,repeating units or repeats)
are patterns of nucleic acids (DNA or RNA) that occur in multiple copies throughout the
genome. Repetitive DNA was first detected because of its rapid re-association kinetics.
Q 11. What is gene mapping?
Answer:Gene mapping describes the methods used to identify the locus of a gene and the
distances between genes. The essence of all genome mapping is to place a collection of
molecular markers onto their respective positions on the genome. Molecular markers come
in all forms.

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 12. What is mutation?
Answer: In biology, a mutation is the alteration of the nucleotide sequence of
the genome of an organism, virus, or extrachromosomal DNA.[1]
Mutations result from errors during DNA replication, mitosis, and meiosis, or other
types of damage to DNA (such as pyrimidine dimers that may be caused by exposure
to radiation or carcinogens), which then may undergo error-prone repair
(especially microhomology-mediated end joining[2]), or cause an error during other
forms of repair,[3][4] or else may cause an error during replication (translesion
synthesis).

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 13. What is meant by Genome and Genomics?
Answer :A genome is an organism's complete set of DNA, including all of its genes. ... Genomics also
involves the sequencing and analysis of genomes through uses of high throughput DNA sequencing and
bioinformatics to assemble and analyze the function and structure of entire genomes.
Q 14. Name the Termination codons and Initiation codons.
Answer:Each three-letter sequence of mRNA nucleotides corresponds to a specific amino acid, or to
a stop codon. UGA, UAA, and UAG are stop codons. AUG is the codon for methionine, and is also
the start codon.
Q 15. What are the applications of human genome sequencing?
Answer :Genetic screening will enable rapid and specific diagnostic tests making it possible to treat
countless maladies (3). DNA-based tests clarify diagnosis quickly and enable geneticists to detect
carriers within families. Genomic information can indicate the future likelihood of some diseases.

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 16. Name the types of gene therapies?
Answer:There are two different types of gene therapy depending on which types of cells are treated:
Somatic gene therapy: transfer of a section of DNA to any cell of the body that doesn't produce sperm or eggs. ...
Germline gene therapy: transfer of a section of DNA to cells that produce eggs or sperm.
Q 17. Types of Mutations with examples?
Answer:Substitution Mutations. Substitution mutations are situations where a single nucleotide is changed into another.
...
Insertions and Deletions. ...
Large-scale mutations. ...
Sickle Cell Disease and Malaria. ...
Klinefelter's Calicos. ...
Lactose Tolerance.

PHARMACOLOGY
Q 18. What is amplification?
Answer:An amplifier, electronic amplifier or (informally) amp is an electronic device that can
increase the power of a signal (a time-varying voltage or current). It is a two-port electronic
circuit that uses electric power from a power supply to increase the amplitude of a signal
applied to its input terminals, producing a proportionally greater amplitude signal at its
output. The amount of amplification provided by an amplifier is measured by its gain: the
ratio of output voltage, current, or power to input. An amplifier is a circuit that has a power
gain greater than one.
Q: 19. What is LOH?
Answer :Loss of heterozygosity is a cross chromosomal event that results in loss of the entire
gene and the surrounding chromosomal region. All diploid cells, for example most human
somatic cells, contain two copies of the genome, one from each parent; each human copy
contains approximately 3 billion bases.

Q :20. Explain the functioning of tumour suppressor genes?
Answer :A tumor suppressor gene, or antioncogene, is a gene that regulates a cell during cell division and
replication. ... When a tumor suppressor gene is mutated, it results in a loss or reduction in its function; in
combination with other genetic mutations this could allow the cell to grow abnormally.
Q 21. Name four diseases caused due to mutations?
Answer:But the mutations we hear about most often are the ones that cause disease. Some well-known
inherited genetic disorders include cystic fibrosis, sickle cell anemia, Tay-Sachs disease, phenylketonuria and
color-blindness, among many others. All of these disorders are caused by the mutation of a single gene.
Q 22. Name post-translation events in protein synthesis?
Answer :Phosphorylation is a type of post-translational modification that adds a phosphate group to
a protein. This is often added to a serine, tyrosine, or threonine amino acid residue. A kinase is
the protein enzyme that adds this phosphate group. Not all proteins are phosphorylated.

PHARMACOLOGY
Q :23. What is tRNA? Write its role.
Answer:Function of tRNA. The job of tRNA is to read the message of nucleic acids, or nucleotides, and translate it into
proteins, or amino acids. The process of making a protein from an mRNA template is called translation. ... Each individual
codon corresponds to an amino acid.
Q :24. Write four application of recombinant-DNA technology?
Answer:Applications in Crop Improvement:
Distant Hybridization: ADVERTISEMENTS: ...
Development of Transgenic Plants: ...
Development of Root Nodules in Cereal Crops: ...
Development of C4 Plants: ...
Production of Antibiotics: ...
Production of Hormone Insulin: ...
Production of Vaccines: ...
Production of Interferon

Q 25. Name the events in eukaryotic protein synthesis?
Answer : It can be viewed as a four-stage process, consisting of amino acid
activation, translation initiation, chain elongation, and termination. The events are
similar in both prokaryotes, such as bacteria , and higher eukaryotic organisms,
although in the latter there are more factors involved in the process.

PHARMACOLOGY. 2
3RD PHARM D QUESTIONS BANK SOLVED
PREPARED BY:
FULCHAN A THANKYOU

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