1. CompTIA 220-702 A+ Practical Application 100-Question Practice Exam
Developed for www.GetCertified4Less.com
(Author to remain anonymous)
This practice exam has been developed exclusively for GetCertified4Less.Com. Answers and explanations
on last pages.
1. Which of the following commands in Windows are used to display help information related to a
specific command-line utility? (Select two answers)
A. help [command]
B. $ man [command]
C. [command] /?
D. $ [command] --help
E. $ info [command]
2. Which of the following are secure networking protocols? (Select two answers)
A. HTTPS
B. Telnet
C. PAP
D. SSH
3. Which of the following are valid loopback addresses? (Select two answers)
A. ::1
B. 169.254/16
C. MAC address
D. 127.0.0.1

2. 4. Protocols that handle electronic mail (e-mail) include: (Select three answers)
A. SMTP
B. POP3
C. IMAP4
D. FTP
E. SNMP
5. Antivirus software can be kept up to date through: (Select all that apply)
A. Virus signature updates
B. Virtualization
C. Auditing
D. Engine updates
6. A Windows feature that allows for storing information on a hard drive in an encrypted format is
called:
A. CDFS
B. FSB
C. EFS
D. Ext3
7. Which Windows feature allows for entire drive encryption?
A. EFS
B. BitLocker
C. UAC
D. IPSec

3. 8. /f switch of the Windows chkdsk utility:
A. Locates bad sectors and recovers readable information
B. Displays the full path and name of every file on the disk
C. Displays cleanup messages
D. Fixes errors on the disk
9. While troubleshooting problems with a Network Interface Card (NIC), connector pins on the NIC's port
can be tested with the use of:
A. Loopback plug
B. Punchdown tool
C. Pliers
D. Molex connector
10. Which of the following is an example of a video RAM?
A. GDDR3
B. UXGA
C. SO-DIMM
D. AGP
11. Which of the following interfaces is used for digital audio?
A. VGA
B. S/PDIF
C. DVI
D. AGP

4. 12. netstat is a command-line utility that:
A. Tests the reachability of a remote host
B. Displays intermediary points on the packet route
C. Displays active TCP/IP connections
D. Shows the TCP/IP configuration details
13. The bus between the CPU and North Bridge is called:
A. Back-side bus
B. Universal Serial Bus (USB)
C. I/O Controller Hub (ICH)
D. Front-side bus (FSB)
14. The bus between the CPU and the internal memory cache (L2 cache) inside the CPU housing is
called:
A. I/O Controller Hub (ICH)
B. Front-side bus (FSB)
C. Universal Serial Bus (USB)
D. Back-side bus
15. Which of the following switches puts the ping command in a loop?
A. -a
B. -t
C. -n
D. -l

5. 16. Red stripe on the edge of the floppy disk ribbon cable is used for:
A. Marking drive B on the cable
B. Designating main drive on the cable
C. Marking the connection with PIN 1 on the motherboard
D. Marking which drive will be drive A
17. The memory cache on the CPU is also known as:
A. L1 cache
B. Secondary cache
C. DRAM cache
D. L3 cache
18. Windows command-line utility for displaying intermediary points on the packet route is called:
A. ping
B. netstat
C. ipconfig
D. tracert
19. What is the maximum number of USB devices that can be connected to a single USB host controller?
A. 127
B. 31
C. 255
D. 63

6. 20. Memory cache not built into the microprocessor chip is known as: (Select two answers)
A. External cache
B. DRAM
C. Secondary cache
D. L1 cache
21. The SFC utility in Windows:
A. Encrypts files and folders
B. Scans for and restores corrupted system files
C. Starts Windows programs from command-line interface
D. Displays information about system hardware and software configuration
22. One IEEE 1394 host controller can support up to:
A. 15 devices
B. 255 devices
C. 63 devices
D. 127 devices
23. Which type of standard FireWire connector has the capability of supplying voltage to a device?
A. 2-pin connector
B. 4-pin connector
C. 6-pin connector
D. 8-pin connector

7. 24. Which of the following is a Windows utility for managing system partitions?
A. control.cpl
B. compmgmt.msc
C. wuapp.exe
D. diskmgmt.msc
25. A hard drive can have: (Select two answers)
A. Up to four primary partitions
B. Only one extended partition
C. Up to four active partitions
D. Only one primary partition
E. Up to four extended partitions
26. Which of the following options of the ping command allows for adjusting the size of the ping packet?
A. -a
B. -n
C. -t
D. -l
27. A security feature in Windows that prompts for administrator password when a program is about to
make a change that requires administrator-level permission is called:
A. UART
B. Task Manager
C. UAC
D. SAM

8. 28. Which of the following allows for resolving problems that cause Windows startup errors and prevent
the system from starting normally?
A. TPM
B. Safe mode
C. chkdsk
D. Hard boot
29. Which of the following are advantages of the New Technology File System (NTFS) over FAT32 file
system? (Select best answer)
A. Disk quotas
B. Compression
C. Object permissions
D. Encryption
E. All of the above features are improvements implemented in NTFS not available in FAT32
30. Which of the following commands applies read-only attribute to a file?
A. attrib +r [drive:][path][filename]
B. attrib [drive:][path][filename] +r
C. attrib /r [drive:][path][filename]
D. attrib +r [drive:][path][filename] /read-only
31. An IP address in the range 169.254.0.1 through 169.254.255.254 indicates a problem with what type
of service?
A. DNS
B. SNMP
C. SMTP
D. DHCP

9. 32. BitLocker Drive Encryption is available in: (Select two answers)
A. Windows 7 Home Premium
B. Windows Vista Starter
C. Windows 7 Ultimate
D. Windows Vista Business
E. Windows 7 Enterprise
33. Network access control method based on the physical address (MAC address) of the Network
Interface Card (NIC) is called:
A. HIDS
B. Accounting
C. MAC filtering
D. Quality of Service (QoS)
34. Safe mode in Windows can be accessed by pressing the:
A. F8 key
B. F6 key
C. F2 key
D. F1 key
35. What is the function of archive bit in Windows?
A. Setting file attribute to read-only
B. Creating an extra copy of a file
C. Search indexing
D. Marking whether a file has changed

10. 36. Which of the following is used to detect whether the computer case has been opened?
A. BitLocker
B. Chassis intrusion detection
C. Mantrap
D. EFS
37. Voice over IP (VoIP) can be implemented through: (Select all that apply)
A. Hardware
B. SMTP
C. Software with additional hardware support
D. Regular telephone
38. Which of the following is the MS-DOS text editor in Windows?
A. Edit
B. Notepad
C. Writer
D. MS Word
39. Which copy switch removes the confirmation prompt displayed when Windows is about to overwrite
the contents of an existing file?
A. /y
B. /a
C. /-y
D. /v

11. 40. Which part needs replacing when system clock in the notification area resets or loses time and date
settings each time the computer is powered on?
A. CMOS battery
B. NIC
C. North Bridge
D. S/PDIF connector
41. What is the capacity of a dual-layer mini Blu-ray disc?
A. 4.7 GB
B. 15.6 GB
C. 8.544 GB
D. 7.8 GB
42. In order to work, an integrated component such as Network Interface Card (NIC) on a brand new
motherboard may need to be first:
A. Updated with the latest driver in Device Manager
B. Looked up on the Hardware Compatibility List (HCL)
C. Checked with cable tester
D. Enabled in the advanced BIOS settings menu
43. Which type of password gives the highest level of permissions in BIOS?
A. root
B. Administrator
C. Supervisor
D. Power User

12. 44. BIOS passwords can be cleared by: (Select all that apply)
A. Using onboard reset switch
B. Setting jumpers on the motherboard
C. Using onboard power-on switch
D. Erasing the CMOS memory
E. Reinstalling CMOS battery
45. What is the capacity of a standard single-layer Blu-ray disc?
A. 25 GB
B. 15.6 GB
C. 8.544 GB
D. 7.8 GB
46. After moving a dynamic disk to the local computer from another computer its status in the Disk
Management utility is set to:
A. Foreign
B. Missing
C. Online
D. Basic
47. Converting a dynamic disk to a basic disk:
A. Requires Guest account permissions
B. Can be done in Windows Control Panel
C. Doesn't have any effect on the stored data
D. Destroys all data on the disk

13. 48. Which of the following is a Windows tool for managing installed hardware?
A. Performance Monitor
B. Device Manager
C. Computer Management
D. Task Manager
49. Which of the following starts command-line interface in Windows?
A. ntoskrnl.exe
B. control.cpl
C. cmd.exe
D. bcdedit.exe
50. Which of the following command-line utilities in Windows allow for copying files and directory trees?
(Select two answers)
A. move
B. xcopy
C. copy
D. robocopy
51. Which of the following tools is used for editing Boot Configuration Data (BCD) settings in Windows
Vista and Windows 7?
A. cmd.exe
B. msconfig
C. bcdedit.exe
D. bootsect.dos

14. 52. Windows commands for creating new directories are called: (Select two answers)
A. move
B. dir
C. copy
D. md
E. mkdir
53. POP3 runs on:
A. TCP port 110
B. TCP port 143
C. TCP port 123
D. TCP port 25
54. Which of the following wireless encryption schemes offers the highest level of protection?
A. WEP
B. WPA2
C. SSID
D. WPA
55. Fixed-input power supplies need the AC voltage level to be set:
A. With the use of jumpers on the motherboard
B. Manually on the back of the power supply unit
C. In Device Manager
D. Fixed-input power supplies have only one preset AC voltage level

15. 56. Which of the following should come next after mounting the CPU fan and heat sink assembly?
A. Securing the CPU by pushing the socket lever down
B. Applying thermal compound
C. Connecting the CPU fan cable to the connector on the motherboard
D. Placing the motherboard on a antistatic mat
57. For proper functioning and optimum compatibility, installed RAM memory modules should: (Select
all that apply)
A. Have the same CAS latency
B. Come from the same vendor
C. Have the highest possible capacity
D. Match the capacity recognized by the operating system
E. Have different CAS latency
58. Which extinguisher type is used for electrical fire?
A. Class D
B. Class B
C. Class A
D. Class C
59. Which of the following CPUs fit into a slot? (Select two answers)
A. Core Duo
B. AMD Sempron
C. Intel Pentium II
D. AMD Athlon

16. 60. What is the maximum data rate supported by the SATA 3.0 standard?
A. 480 Mbps
B. 3 Gbps
C. 800 Mbps
D. 6 Gbps
61. Which of the following RAID schemes offer fault tolerance? (Select all that apply)
A. Disk mirroring
B. RAID 0
C. Disk duplexing
D. Disk striping
E. RAID 5
62. A single Parallel ATA (PATA) cable may connect one motherboard socket with:
A. Up to 3 devices
B. Up to 2 devices
C. Up to 4 devices
D. Only 1 device
63. A diagnostic expansion card that displays progress and error messages generated during computer
startup is called:
A. Startup card
B. Loopback plug
C. POST card
D. Media reader

17. 64. Which of the following commands in Windows are used for removing directories? (Select two
answers)
A. rd
B. erase
C. dir /delete
D. rmdir
65. What is QuickPath Interconnect (QPI)?
A. Technology by AMD replacing the Front-side bus
B. Technology by Intel replacing the Back-side Bus
C. Technology by AMD replacing the Back-side bus
D. Technology by Intel replacing the Front-side Bus
66. Which of the following commands in Windows change the current directory to the root directory?
(Select two answers)
A. chdir /r
B. cd
C. chdir
D. cd..
E. dir /root
67. Which of the following allows one core on the processor to appear like two cores to the operating
system?
A. QPI
B. HyperTransport
C. CrossFireX
D. HTT

18. 68. The option to cancel all print jobs in Windows 7 can be found in:
A. Device Manager interface
B. Printers window
C. Administrative Tools menu
D. Devices and Printers window
69. Which rd switch removes directory trees?
A. /s
B. /r
C. /all
D. /t
70. What is the maximum length for external SATA (eSATA) cable?
A. 5 meters
B. 18 inches
C. 2 meters
D. 1 meter
71. Which of the following is the first step in the laser printing process?
A. Cleaning
B. Charging
C. Writing
D. Developing

19. 72. Graphics cards can use either any PCI Express slot or an AGP slot.
A. True
B. False
73. Which of the following are parallel communication interfaces? (Select all that apply)
A. IEEE 1394
B. PCI Express
C. IEEE 1284
D. AGP
E. PCI
74. Which of the following tools are used for testing power supply voltage output? (Select two answers)
A. Torx screwdriver
B. Tone probe
C. Loopback plug
D. Power supply tester
E. Multimeter
75. Windows utility that allows for returning critical system files, program files and registry settings to an
earlier point in time is called:
A. Task Scheduler
B. Remote Assistance
C. System Restore
D. Indexing

20. 76. Which of the following port numbers are used by the File Transfer Protocol (FTP)? (Select two
answers)
A. 20
B. 21
C. 22
D. 23
77. Which of the following is an example of a multi-factor authentication?
A. Password and biometric scan
B. User name and PIN
C. Smart card and identification badge
D. Iris and fingerprint scan
78. Which of the following are Windows utilities for displaying and changing the access control for files
and folders? (Select two answers)
A. attrib
B. chkntfs
C. chmod
D. cacls
E. icacls
79. What is the path to the Fonts folder in Windows Vista / 7?
A. C:ProgramDataMicrosoftFonts
B. C:WindowsFonts
C. C:Program FilesFonts
D. C:WindowsResourcesFonts

21. 80. IEEE 802.11i is also known as:
A. WPA2
B. WAP
C. WAN
D. WEP
81. Which of the following connector types is used with coaxial cabling?
A. MT-RJ
B. LC
C. BNC
D. ST
82. An attempt to flood the bandwidth or resources of a targeted system so that it becomes
overwhelmed with false requests and in result doesn't have time or resources to handle legitimate
requests is called:
A. MS DOS
B. Botnet
C. Social engineering
D. DoS attack
83. What is the most common type of a DSL Internet access?
A. VDSL
B. ADSL
C. SDSL
D. UDSL

22. 84. Which of the following does not offer fault tolerance?
A. Disk duplexing
B. JBOD
C. RAID 5
D. Disk mirroring
85. Which of the following ATA versions allows for attaching devices other than hard drives?
A. ATA-1
B. ATA-2
C. ATA-3
D. ATAPI
86. SCSI ID:
A. Is used to identify SCSI devices on a network
B. Identifies physical device on a SCSI chain
C. Is used as another term for Logical Unit Number (LUN)
D. Identifies logical device embedded in the physical device on a SCSI chain
87. Files and Settings Transfer Wizard, Windows Easy Transfer, and USMT are all:
A. Tools for moving user data and user information to a new computer running Windows
B. Utilities for moving system files between Windows and Linux
C. Tools for moving system files between different Windows versions
D. Utilities for moving system files between Windows and Mac OS

23. 88. Which type of RAM can detect and correct memory errors?
A. ECC
B. Non-ECC
C. Parity
D. Unbuffered
89. Which of the following are magnetic tape data storage formats? (Select two answers)
A. DLT
B. LTO
C. MUI
D. PXE
E. OEM
90. Windows utility for installing and updating drivers for hardware devices, changing hardware settings,
and troubleshooting problems is called:
A. Device Manager
B. Performance Monitor
C. Task Manager
D. Action Center
91. RAID Level 5 requires at least:
A. 4 disk drives
B. 2 disk drives
C. 6 disk drives
D. 3 disk drives

24. 92. Which of the following utilities allows for managing services that are running on local or remote
Windows computers?
A. taskmgr.exe
B. services.msc
C. eventvwr.exe
D. inetcpl.cpl
93. After reaching the limit of changes, the DVD region code:
A. Can be reset to 0 in BIOS
B. Can be changed by reinstalling Windows
C. Can be extended by moving the DVD drive to another computer
D. Cannot be changed
94. Which type of cabling provides protection against EMI? (Select all that apply)
A. UTP
B. Coaxial
C. Fiber-optic
D. STP
95. What is the name of a Windows Vista and Windows 7 utility that allows users to create backups?
A. NTBackup
B. System Restore
C. Backup and Restore
D. Windows Easy Transfer

25. 96. Which of the following allows for accessing system memory without involving the CPU?
A. DMA channel
B. Memory address
C. I/O address
D. IRQ
97. Type-III PC Cards: (Select two answers)
A. Are 3.3 mm thick
B. Are 10.5 mm thick
C. Are used for cards containing modems and network adapters
D. Are 5.0 mm thick
E. Are used for cards containing hard disk drives
98. Which of the following codes marks the ACPI Mechanical Off state?
A. G0
B. G1
C. G2
D. G3
99. Which of the following codes marks the ACPI Hibernation state?
A. S1
B. S2
C. S3
D. S4

26. 100. Which of the following replaces boot.ini in Windows Vista and Windows 7?
A. bootsect.dos
B. ntldr
C. Boot Configuration Data (BCD)
D. bcdedit.exe

27. ANSWERS
1. Answers: A and C. help [command] and [command] /?
Explanation: In Windows, help [command] and [command] /? are used to display help information
related to a specific command-line utility. man and info commands, as well as --help command option
are all specific to UNIX-like operating systems.
2. Answers: A and D. HyperText Transfer Protocol over SSL/TLS (HTTPS) and Secure Shell (SSH)
Explanation: Telnet and Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) do not offer encryption and send
passwords in clear text. HTTPS employs Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) or Transport Layer Security (TLS)
protocol in order to encrypt web traffic between hosts. SSH allows for remote access / administration
over command line and offers the same functionality as Telnet additionally encrypting the entire
communication channel.
3. Answers: A and D. ::1 and 127.0.0.1
Explanation: ::1 is a loopback address for IPv6, 127/8 address range (including 127.0.0.1 address) is
reserved for loopback testing in IPv4. 169.254/16 is an address range used by Automatic Private IP
Addressing (APIPA) in Windows. Media Access Control (MAC) address is a hardware address of the
Network Interface Card (NIC).
4. Answers: A, B, and C. SMTP, POP3, and IMAP4
Explanation: Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is used for relying e-mail messages between mail
servers. Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3) and Internet Message Access Protocol version 4 (IMAP4)
are used for retrieving e-mail messages from mail servers (IMAP4 offers improved
functionalitycompared to POP3). File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is used for transferring files. Simple
Network Management Protocol (SNMP) serves as a network administration tool for checking the state
and configuration of network devices.

28. 5. Answers: A and D. Virus signature updates and Engine updates
Explanation: Antivirus software can be kept up to date through virus signature updates and engine
updates. Engine updates equip the antivirus application with tools to recognize and remove new
malware types, virus signature updates add new malicious code patterns to the virus database used by
the antivirus application as a reference for malware scanning.
6. Answer: C. EFS
Explanation: Encrypting File System (EFS) is a feature of Windows that allows for storing information on
a hard drive in an encrypted format. Certain editions of Microsoft Windows (including Starter, Home
Basic, and Home Premium) do not offer full support for EFS. EFS can only encrypt individual files.
7. Answer: B. BitLocker
BitLocker encrypts the entire drive. Encrypting File System (EFS) allows only for encryption of individual
files. User Account Control (UAC) is a Windows security feature that prompts for administrator password
when a program is about to make a change that requires administrator-level permission. IPSec (IP
Security) is an IP packet encryption protocol.
8. Answer: D. Fixes errors on the disk
Explanation: chkdsk /f attempts to fix errors on the disk.
9. Answer: A. Loopback plug
Explanation: Connector pins on the Network Interface Card (NIC) port can be tested with the use of a
loopback plug.
10. Answer: A. GDDR3
Explanation: Graphics Double Data Rate version 3 (GDDR3) is a type of SDRAM memory specifically
designed for video cards. Ultra XGA (UXGA) is a video resolution standard that supports screen
resolutions of up to 1600 x 1200. Small Outline DIMM (SO-DIMM) is one of the memory form factors
used in laptops. Accelerated Graphics Port (AGP) is a video bus and port designed specifically for
graphics cards.

29. 11. Answer: B. S/PDIF
Explanation: S/PDIF (Sony/Philips Digital Interconnect Format) is a digital interface designed specifically
for audio signal transmission. Video Graphics Array (VGA) is an analog, video-only interface. Digital
Visual Interface (DVI) is a video-only interface supporting both analog and digital transmission.
Accelerated Graphics Port (AGP) is a dedicated video bus and port for graphics cards.
12. Answer: C. Displays active TCP/IP connections
Explanation: netstat is a command-line utility used for displaying active TCP/IP connections. Command-
line program used for testing the reachability of a remote host is called ping. Windows command-line
utility for displaying intermediary points on the packet route is called tracert. Windows command-line
program for displaying TCP/IP configuration details is called ipconfig.
13. Answer: D. Front-side bus (FSB)
Explanation: The bus between the CPU and North Bridge is called Front-side bus (FSB).
14. Answer: D. Back-side bus
Explanation: The bus between the CPU and internal memory cache (L2 cache) inside the CPU housing is
called back-side bus.
15. Answer: B. -t
Explanation: ping -t pings the specified host until stopped (Control-C is used to stop this command).
16. Answer: C. Marking the connection with PIN 1 on the motherboard
Explanation: Red stripe on the edge of the floppy disk ribbon cable is used for marking the connection
with PIN 1 on the motherboard's floppy disk drive connector.
17. Answer: A. L1 cache
Explanation: The memory cache on the CPU is also known as Level 1 (L1) cache. This type of memory
uses fast Static RAM (SRAM). L1 cache is also referred to as primary cache, or internal cache.

30. 18. Answer: D. tracert
Explanation: Windows command-line utility for displaying intermediary points (routers) the packet is
passed through on its way to a destination host is called tracert. Command-line program for testing the
reachability of a remote host is called ping. Windows command-line program for displaying TCP/IP
configuration details is called ipconfig. Command-line utility used for displaying active TCP/IP
connections is called netstat.
19. Answer: A. 127
Explanation: The maximum number of USB devices (including USB hubs) that can be connected to a
single USB host controller equals 127.
20. Answers: A and C. External cache and Secondary cache
Explanation: Memory cache not built into the microprocessor chip is known as external cache or
secondary cache. Memory cache built into the CPU chip is referred to as internal cache or primary
cache.
21. Answer: B. Scans for and restores corrupted system files
Explanation: System File Checker (sfc.exe) is a Windows utility that is used for scanning integrity of all
protected system files and repairing files with problems when possible.
22. Answer: C. 63 devices
Explanation: One IEEE 1394 host controller can support up to 63 devices.
23. Answer: C. 6-pin connector
Explanation: In terms of the number of used pins, there are three types of standard FireWire
connectors: 4-pin, 6-pin, and 9-pin. Of the three, only the 6-pin and 9-pin connectors can provide
voltage to a device.

31. 24. Answer: D. diskmgmt.msc
Explanation: Disk Management (diskmgmt.msc) is a Windows utility for managing volumes and
partitions on the hard drive. Disk Management allows for formatting, extending, shrinking, deleting, or
displaying contents of a partition or volume.
25. Answers: A and B. Up to four primary partitions and Only one extended partition
Explanation: A hard drive can have up to four primary partitions and only one extended partition.
Primary partition can contain only one logical disk; extended partition can be divided into multiple
logical drives. Partition designated to boot the OS is called active partition and at any given time only
one partition can be set as active.
26. Answer: D. -l
Explanation: -l switch allows for adjusting the size of the ping packet (the default size of a ping packet is
32 bytes).
27. Answer: C. UAC
Explanation: Windows Vista and Windows 7 include the User Account Security (UAC) feature which
displays a prompt for administrator password when a program is about to make a change that requires
an administrator-level permission. UAC was introduced in Windows Vista and is also present in Windows
7, but wasn't available in earlier Windows releases prior to Vista, such as Windows Me or XP.
28. Answer: B. Safe mode
Explanation: Safe mode allows for resolving problems that cause Windows startup errors and prevent
the system from starting normally. Startup errors can be caused by faulty applications, system services,
and device drivers that are loaded automatically. In Safe mode, only the core Windows drivers and
system services are loaded, and once the system starts in this mode it allows for troubleshooting
problems by disabling or removing a system service, a device driver, or automatically started application
that is preventing the computer from starting normally. Safe modecan be accessed by pressing the F8
key during system boot.

32. 29. Answer: E. All of the above features are improvements implemented in NTFS not available in FAT32
Explanation: NTFS was designed as a replacement for its predecessor, the File Allocation Table (FAT) file
system. Its advantages over FAT include improved reliability due to the file system recovery features,
increased security achieved by allowing users to set permissions on files or folders (through the
Discretionary Access Control access control model), support for the Encrypting File System (EFS)
technology used to store encrypted files on NTFS volumes, and file compression. With NTFS, system
administrators can also set limits on the usable hard drive space for each user by applying disk quotas.
30. Answer: A. attrib +r [drive:][path][filename]
Explanation: attrib is a command used to set and remove file attributes. Available options include read-
only (r), archive (a), system (s), and hidden (h). With attrib, the + symbol sets an attribute for a file, - sign
removes the attribute. The correct syntax for setting the read-only attribute is attrib +r
[drive:][path][filename].
31. Answer: D. DHCP
Explanation: An IP address in the range 169.254.0.1 through 169.254.255.254 indicates that a DHCP
service is not available. IP address in the range 169.254.x.x is also known as Automatic Private IP
Address (APIPA). Auto configuration with APIPA is a feature of Windows operating systems. Windows
clients configured with APIPA can communicate only within a private network and cannot send data on
the Internet.
32. Answers: C and E. Windows 7 Ultimate and Windows 7 Enterprise
Explanation: For desktops, the ability to encrypt drives using BitLocker Drive Encryption is only available
in Ultimate and Enterprise editions of Windows Vista and Windows 7. BitLocker Drive Encryption is also
a feature of Windows Server 2008.
33. Answer: C. MAC filtering
Explanation: Network access control method based on the physical address (MAC address) of the
Network Interface Card (NIC) is called MAC filtering or MAC address filtering. 48-bit MAC address is a
unique number assigned to every network adapter. Wireless Access Point can have a certain MAC
address blacklisted or whitelisted and based on the entry on either of the lists grant or deny access to
the network.

33. 34. Answer: A. F8 key
Explanation: Safe Mode in Microsoft Windows can be accessed by pressing the F8 key during system
boot. Safe Mode allows for resolving problems that cause Windows startup errors and prevent the
system from starting normally. Startup errors can be caused by faulty applications, system services, and
device drivers that are loaded automatically. In Safe Mode, only the core Windows drivers and system
services are loaded, and once the system starts in this mode it allows for troubleshooting problems by
disabling or removing a system service, a device driver, or automatically started application that is
preventing the computer from starting normally. Safe mode is also used for scanning and removal of
malicious software.
35. Answer: D. Marking whether a file has changed
Explanation: The state of an archive bit in Windows indicates whether a file has changed. The archive bit
can be either set (when a file is created or modified), or cleared (indicating that the file has been backed
up).
36. Answer: B. Chassis intrusion detection
Explanation: Chassis intrusion detection is a security measure used to detect whether the computer case
has been opened. Chassis intrusion detection feature is usually configured (enabled or disabled) through
the system BIOS. A motherboard can have a chassis intrusion connector for chassis-mounted intrusion
detection sensor or switch. The chassis intrusion sensor or switch can send a high-level signal
(designating a chassis intrusion event) to the connector when a chassis component is removed or
replaced or when the system case is opened.
37. Answers: A and C. Hardware and Software with additional hardware support
Explanation: Voice over IP (VoIP) allows for voice communication and multimedia transmissions over IP
networks, such as the Internet. VoIP allows for placing and receiving telephone calls in much the same
manner as via the traditional Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN). VoIP can be implemented
either through hardware or software. Hardware implementations include dedicated VoIP phones that
connect directly to the IP network either through the wired Ethernet or wireless Wi-Fi. Software
implementation requires a special application (often referred to as a softphone) to be installed on a
networked computer that is equipped with a microphone and speaker, or headset.

34. 38. Answer: A. Edit
Explanation: Edit is a MS-DOS text editor available in 32-bit versions of Microsoft Windows (64-bit
versions of Windows do not include this application). Edit can be launched from the Windows
command-line interface (cmd.exe).
39. Answer: A. /y
Explanation: The /y switch available in the Windows command-line copy utility removes the
confirmation prompt displayed when Windows is about to overwrite the contents of an existing file.
40. Answer: A. CMOS battery
Explanation: CMOS battery supplies power to a small memory chip on the motherboard that stores BIOS
and real-time clock (RTC) settings when the computer is powered off. When system clock in the
notification area resets or loses time and date settings each time the computer is powered on, the most
probable cause of this problem is faulty or depleted CMOS battery.
41. Answer: B. 15.6 GB
Explanation: A dual-layer Blu-ray disc may hold up to twice the amount of data or video compared to a
single-layer disc, and uses two independent layers placed on one side of the disc to store its information.
A single-layer Blu-ray mini disc holds up to 7.8 gigabytes, while a dual-layer Blu-ray mini disc holds up to
15.6 gigabytes of data, without the need to flip the disc.
42. Answer: D. Enabled in the advanced BIOS settings menu
Explanation: In order to work, an integrated component such as Network Interface Card (NIC) on a
brand new motherboard may need to be first enabled in the advanced BIOS settings menu.

35. 43. Answer: C. Supervisor
Explanation: The supervisor password gives the highest level of permissions in BIOS. Another type of
password available for the BIOS interface is user password. Installing a supervisor password enables
additional security features in the BIOS interface. Depending on implementation, once the supervisor
password is set the supervisor may for example disable user access to the BIOS setup utility, allow
access in a view only mode preventing the user from applying any changes, grant user access only to
selected fields in BIOS, or allow the user to view and change all the fields in the BIOS setup utility by
granting full access. Supervisor may also change or clear the user password, or set the point when the
user will be asked for password (for example only while accessing BIOS setup utility or when accessing
setup and booting the system).
44. Answers: B, D, and E. Setting jumpers on the motherboard, Erasing the CMOS memory, and
Reinstalling CMOS battery
Explanation: CMOS memory keeps track of the current date and time when the computer is powered
off. CMOS memory also stores system setup information including BIOS passwords. BIOS passwords can
be cleared by erasing the contents of CMOS memory. This can be done either by setting jumpers on the
motherboard or by reinstalling small battery on the motherboard that supplies power for CMOS
memory when the computer is powered off.
45. Answer: A. 25 GB
Explanation: A single-layer standard Blu-ray disc holds up to 25 gigabytes of data, while a dual-layer
standard Blu-ray disc holds up to 50 gigabytes of data, without the need to flip the disc. A dual-layer Blu-
ray disc may hold up to twice the amount of data or video compared to a single-layer disc, and uses two
independent layers placed on one side of the disc to store its information.
46. Answer: A. Foreign
Explanation: After moving a dynamic disk to the local computer from another computer its status in the
Disk Management utility is set to Foreign. To access and use the disk, its status needs to be changed to
Online. The Online status is the normal disk status indicating that the disk is accessible and has no
known problems.

36. 47. Answer: D. Destroys all data on the disk
Explanation: Converting a dynamic disk to a basic disk destroys all data on the disk.
48. Answer: B. Device Manager
Explanation: Device Manager is a Windows tool for managing installed hardware. The most common
tasks performed with the use of Device Manager include checking the status of hardware and updating
device drivers on the computer.
49. Answer: C. cmd.exe
Explanation: Windows command-line interface can be launched by typing cmd.exe (or cmd) in the Run
dialog box located in the Start menu.
50. Answers: B and D. xcopy and robocopy
Explanation: xcopy and robocopy are Windows command-line utilities that allow for copying files and
directory trees. copy allows only for copying one or more files to another location and does not support
copying directories or directory trees (directory structures including subdirectories).
51. Answer: C. bcdedit.exe
Explanation:Boot Configuration Data (BCD) settings in Windows Vista, Windows 7 and Windows 2008
can be changed with the use of bcdedit.exe.
52. Answers: D and E. md and mkdir
Explanation: md and mkdir are used in Windows command line to create new directories.
53. Answer: A. TCP port 110
Explanation: Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3) runs on TCP port 110. TCP port 143 is used by
Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP). POP and IMAP are the two protocols for retrieving e-mail
messages from mail servers. TCP port 25 is used by Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). SMTP handles
sending e-mail messages between mail servers.

37. 54. Answer: B. WPA2
Explanation: Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) and Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) are encryption
standards designed for securing wireless networks. WEP is an older standard and due to its
vulnerabilities is not recommended. WPA was designed as an interim replacement for WEP, and WPA2
was introduced as the official standard offering the strongest security of the three.
55. Answer: B. Manually on the back of the power supply unit
Explanation: Power supplies may accept an AC current of 110-120 volts (standard AC current in the
United States and Canada) or 220-240 volts (European AC standard). A PSU might have either a manual
selector switch on the back of the device for adjusting the supplied voltage (these types of PSUs are
referred to as fixed-input devices), or automatically adapt to the supplied AC voltage (auto-switching
PSUs).
56. Answer: C. Connecting the CPU fan cable to the connector on the motherboard
Explanation: After mounting the CPU fan and heat sink assembly, the CPU fan cable needs to be
attached to the connector on the motherboard.
57. Answers: A, B and D. Have the same CAS latency, Come from the same vendor, and Match the
capacity recognized by the operating system
Explanation: In order to function properly, installed memory modules should always have the same CAS
latency. For optimum compatibility, it is recommended to obtain the memory modules from the same
vendor. 32-bit Windows operating systems may only recognize less than 3GB of installed RAM hence
buying RAM sticks with the highest possible capacity might not always be a good option.
58. Answer: D. Class C
Explanation: Class A extinguishers are designed for ordinary solid combustibles, such as wood or
cardboard. Class B extinguishers are used for flammable liquids and gases. Class C extinguishers are
designed for electrical fires. Class D extinguishers are used for combustible metals.

38. 59. Answers: C and D. Intel Pentium II and AMD Athlon
Explanation: CPUs that use a slot instead of a socket include Intel Pentium II and AMD Athlon.
60. Answer: D. 6 Gbps
Explanation: The maximum data rate supported by the SATA 3.0 standard is 6 Gbps (SATA 2.0 runs at 3
Gbps, SATA 1.0 runs at 1.5 Gbps). 800 Mbps is the data rate supported by the IEEE 1934b standard
(FireWire 800). 480 Mbps is the maximum data transfer rate defined in the USB 2.0 standard.
61. Answer: A, C, and E. Disk mirroring, Disk duplexing, and RAID 5
Explanation: All implementations of RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) except RAID 0 (also
known as disk striping) offer fault tolerance.
62. Answer: B. Up to 2 devices
Explanation: A single Parallel ATA (PATA) cable may connect one motherboard socket with up to 2
devices.
63. Answer: C. POST card
Explanation: Power-On Self Test (POST) is a diagnostic routine that takes place immediately after the
computer is powered on. The purpose of POST is to check the proper functioning of the system
hardware components. POST diagnostic card is an expansion card that displays progress and error
messages (in form of numeric codes) generated during POST.
64. Answers: A and D. rd and rmdir
Explanation: rd and rmdir are Windows commands for deleting directories. Plain rd and rmdir
commands will display an error message if a directory that is to be deleted is not empty. Using either of
these commands with the /s switch removes the specified directory with all subdirectories and files
contained in it (rd /s and rmdir /s allow for removing all directory trees).

39. 65. Answer: D. Technology by Intel replacing the Front-side bus
Explanation: QuickPath Interconnect (QPI) is a technology by Intel designed to replace the Front-side bus
(FSB).
66. Answers: B and C. cd and chdir
Explanation: Windows cd and chdir commands change the current working directory to the root
directory.
67. Answer: D. HTT
Explanation: Hyper-Threading Technology (HTT) developed by Intel improves overall system
performance by allowing one core on the processor to appear like two cores to the operating system.
HTT requires a CPU, chipset, operating system, and BIOS that all support the technology. Most of the
systems supporting Hyper-Threading allow for enabling and disabling HTT as a BIOS option.
68. Answer: D. Devices and Printers window
Explanation: The option to cancel all print jobs in Windows 7 can be found in the Devices and Printers
Window. Devices and Printers window can be accessed by clicking the Start button and then Devices and
Printers. After double-clicking on the icon of the printer in use in the Devices and Printers window, print
jobs can be flushed by choosing Cancel All Documents option from the Printer menu. Print queue can
also be displayed by double-clicking on the printer icon in the notification area.
69. Answer: A. /s
Explanation: rd and rmdir commands will display an error message if a directory that is to be deleted is
not empty. Using either of these commands with the /s switch removes the specified directory with all
subdirectories and files contained in it (rd /s and rmdir /s allow for removing all directory trees).
70. Answer: C. 2 meters
Explanation: The maximum allowable cable length for the external SATA (eSATA) interface is 2 meters.

40. 71. Answer: A. Cleaning
Explanation: Cleaning is the first step in the laser printing process. Before printing new page, the photo-
sensitive drum inside the laser printer is cleaned of any residual toner and electrical charge.
72. Answer: B. False
Explanation: Accelerated Graphics Port (AGP) is a dedicated port for attaching video card to a
motherboard. PCI Express allows for attaching video cards through the PCI Express x16 connector slot.
73. Answers: C, D, and E. IEEE 1284, AGP, and PCI
Explanation: The basic difference between parallel and serial communication is the number of wires
used for transmission of data. Parallel transmission occurs simultaneously over multiple number of
wires, serial interfaces rely on a single channel wherein data is sent one bit at a time. 1284 is an IEEE
(Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers) standard defining parallel communication between
computers and other devices. Other examples of parallel interfaces include Accelerated Graphics Port
(AGP) and Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI). PCI Express and IEEE 1394 (also known as FireWire)
are both serial interfaces.
74. Answers: D and E. Power supply tester and Multimeter
Explanation: Power supply testers and multimeters are the tools for checking power supply voltage
output. Testing the power supply requires the device to be powered on and manual testing with the use
of multimeter could be less safe compared to automatic test that can be carried out with the use of
power supply tester.
75. Answer: C. System Restore
Explanation: Windows utility that allows for returning critical system files, program files and registry
settings to an earlier point in time without affecting user data (documents, pictures or other personal
data) is called System Restore (rstrui.exe). Restore points are created automatically before important
system events, such installation of drivers or operating system updates and can be used for reverting
unwanted system changes that make the computer run slowly or stop responding (restore points can
also be created manually). System Restore doesn't back up user files.

41. 76. Answers: A and B. 20 and 21
Explanation: File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is an unencrypted file exchange protocol. FTP employs TCP
ports 20 and 21. Connection established over TCP port 20 (the data connection) is used for exchanging
data, connection made over TCP port 21 (the control connection) remains open for the duration of the
whole session and is used for session administration (commands, identification, passwords, etc.).
77. Answer: A. Password and biometric scan
Explanation: Authentication is proving user identity to a system. Authentication process can be based on
three categories of authentication factors: user names and passwords (something that the user knows),
physical tokens such as smart cards (something that the user has), or unique traits of every single
person, such as fingerprints (fingerprint scanner). Multi-factor authentication requires authentication
factors from two or more different categories.
78. Answers: D and E. cacls and icacls
Explanation: cacls and icacls are Windows utilities for displaying and changing the access control for files
and folders.
79. Answer: B. C:WindowsFonts
Explanation: Windows fonts in Windows Vista and Windows 7 (also XP) are stored in C:WindowsFonts.
80. Answer: A. WPA2
Explanation: IEEE 802.11i standard is also known as WPA2. The two terms, 802.11i and Wi-Fi Protected
Access II (WPA2) are used synonymously to mean the new security standard for wireless networks.
81. Answer: C. BNC
Explanation: Bayonet Neill–Concelman (BNC) is a common type of connector used with coaxial cabling.
Mechanical Transfer Registered Jack (MT-RJ), Straight Tip (ST) connector, and Lucent Connector (LC) are
connectors used for fiber optic cabling.

42. 82. Answer: D. DoS attack
Explanation: The goal of Denial of Service (DoS) attack is to flood the bandwidth or resources of a
targeted system so that it becomes overwhelmed with false requests and in result doesn't have time or
resources to handle legitimate requests.
83. Answer: B. ADSL
Explanation: Asynchronous Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL) is the most common type of DSL technology.
ADSL download and upload speeds differ (ADSL download rates are much higher than upload rates).
ADSL modems use RJ-11 connectors and share the regular telephone line (customer's telephone line
requires special filtering device to pass both ADSL and voice communication over the same line).
84. Answer: B. JBOD
Explanation: Just a Bunch Of Drives (JBOD) refers to multiple hard drive setup that doesn't provide any
fault tolerance. Redundancy and fault tolerance can be achieved by configuring hard drives in one of the
RAID levels.
85. Answer: D. ATAPI
Explanation: AT Attachment Packet Interface (ATAPI) allows for connecting devices such as optical drives
or tape drives. ATA-1, ATA-2, and ATA-3 standards didn't have this feature and support for devices other
than hard drives was added in the ATA-4 standard (the official name of this standard is ATA/ATAPI-4).
86. Answer: B. Identifies physical device on a SCSI chain
Explanation: SCSI ID identifies the physical device on a SCSI chain. If a SCSI device has some further
devices embedded in it, each of those devices is identified with the use of a Logical Unit Number (LUN).

43. 87. Answer: A. Tools for moving user data and user information to a new computer running Windows
Explanation: Files and Settings Transfer Wizard, Windows Easy Transfer, and USMT are all tools for
moving user data and user information to a new computer running MS Windows. Files and Settings
Transfer Wizard is a user migration tool available in Windows XP. Windows Easy Transfer is an improved
version of the Files and Settings Transfer Wizard for Windows Vista and Windows 7. Windows Easy
Transfer is not available in Windows XP, but the application can be downloaded and installed on
Windows XP or Windows 2000 (on Windows 2000 Windows Easy Transfer can only be used for
transferring files from Windows 2000 to a new computer; transfer of user settings is not supported).
User State Migration Tool (USMT) is a more advanced migration tool for transferring user-profile
information to a new Windows computer. USMT is an advanced, scriptable command-line tool used for
migrating multiple user profiles in Windows domain environment.
88. Answer: A. ECC
Explanation: Error-Correcting Code (ECC) RAM can detect and correct memory errors.
89. Answers: A and B. DLT and LTO
Explanation: Magnetic tape data storage formats include Digital Linear Tape (DLT) and Linear Tape-Open
(LTO).
90. Answer: A. Device Manager
Explanation: Device Manager is a Windows utility for installing and updating drivers for hardware
devices, changing hardware settings, and troubleshooting problems.
91. Answer: D. 3 disk drives
Explanation: RAID Level 5 requires a minimum of 3 disk drives to implement.
92. Answer: B. services.exe
Explanation: A service is a program that runs in a background without the user interaction providing
core system features such as event logging or error reporting. Services snap-in (services.exe) allows for
starting, stopping, pausing, resuming, or disabling services.

44. 93. Answer: D. Cannot be changed
Explanation: Most DVDs are encoded to play in specific regions. Playing a regionalized DVD requires
setting the DVD drive to play discs from that region. DVD region code setting can be changed 5 times.
After reaching the limit the DVD region code cannot be changed even after reinstalling Windows or
moving the DVD drive to another computer.
94. Answers: B, C, and D. Coaxial, Fiber-optic, and STP
Explanation: Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) and coaxial cabling provide protection against Electromagnetic
Interference (EMI) in the form of cable shielding. Fiber-optic cabling is immune to EMI.
95. Answer: C. Backup and Restore
Explanation: Windows Backup and Restore is a Windows Vista and Windows 7 utility for creating and
restoring backups of user data. Backup and Restore was introduced in Windows Vista as a replacement
for NTBackup available in previous Windows versions including Windows 2000, Windows XP and
Windows Server 2003. Restoring backups created with NTBackup on a computer running Windows XP in
Windows 7 requires downloading and installing the Windows NT Backup - Restore Utility for Windows 7
from the Microsoft website.
96. Answer: A. DMA channel
Explanation: Direct memory access (DMA) allows hardware devices to access system memory without
involving the CPU. DMA, along with Interrupt Request numbers (IRQs), I/O addresses, and memory
addresses falls into the category of the so called system resources (tools that enable communication
between hardware and software).
97. Answers: B and E. Are 10.5 mm thick and Are used for cards containing hard disk drives
Explanation: Type-III PC Cards are 10.5 mm thick and are used for cards containing hard disk drives.
98. Answer: D. G3
Explanation: Advanced Configuration and Power Interface (ACPI) allows the operating system to control
the amount of power supplied to each device connected to a computer. G3 is the code that indicates the
ACPI Mechanical Off state when the system is powered down.

45. 99. Answer: D. S4
Explanation: S4 is the code that indicates the ACPI Hibernation state. ACPI specification defines four
global (G) states (from G0 through G3). G1 (Sleeping) is subdivided into four S states, with S4 indicating
the Hibernation mode.
100. Answer: C. Boot Configuration Data (BCD)
Explanation: Boot Configuration Data (BCD) in Windows Vista and Windows 7 replaces the boot.ini
available in earlier Windows versions.