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Anwser,s
    Dr :ANAS SAHLE
   1. Chest xr cases.
 2. Chest clinical case.
   3. Chest ct cases.
    4. MRCP exam.
:http://www.facebook.com/dranas224

                                     Monday, December 31, 2012
chest xr cases
   Dr :anas sahle
 http://www.facebook.com/dranas224
CXR-31




DIAGNOSIS: Aneurysm of Descending Aorta
CXR-32




              DIAGNOSIS: Fungous Ball

Crescent sign - semilunar air space above mass density
CXR-33a




     Aspergillosis
Sub-acute Invasive Form
CXR-33b




  Cavitation with return of white count
Resembling fungous ball with crescentic air
        Non- mobile fungous ball
CXR-33c




  Cavitation with return of white count
Resembling fungous ball with crescentic air
        Non- mobile fungous ball
CXR-34




DIAGNOSIS: Blebs
CXR-35a
CXR-35b




    Lingular pneumonia            Lingular pneumonia
Post obstructive pneumonia    Post obstructive pneumonia

DIAGNOSIS: Broncholith
DIAGNOSIS: Broncholith




                    Monday, December 31, 2012
CXR-36
     DIAGNOSIS: Left Cervical Rib




You identify the rib by the transverse process with which it
articulates.
A: Transverse process cervical vertebra: Horizontal
B: Transverse process dorsal vertebra: Upward
CXR-37




DIAGNOSIS: Dextrocardia
Note
• Stomach bubble on left
• Right diaphragm lower
  – Position of heart determines which diaphragm is
    lower, not liver.
• Pectus accounts for increased density on left




                                         Monday, December 31, 2012
CXR-38




DIAGNOSIS: Dextrocardia / Kertagener's Syndrome:
Monday, December 31, 2012
chest clinical cases
        A 20 Year-Old with a
         Mediastinal Mass
Submitted by
Tyler B. Anderson, MD
Fellow
Division of Pulmonary, Allergy, Critical Care and Sleep Medicine
The Ohio State University Medical Center
Columbus, Ohio
Jonathan P. Parsons, MD, MSc, FCCP
Associate Professor of Internal Medicine
Division of Pulmonary, Allergy, Critical Care and Sleep Medicine
The Ohio State University Medical Center
Columbus, Ohio
History
• A 20 year old Caucasian man with no significant past
  medical history presented to his primary care physician
  for chest discomfort and cough.
• Two months prior to presentation, he reported having
  an unremarkable viral syndrome which resolved with
  no medical intervention.
• His primary care physician prescribed a short course of
  antibiotics for empiric treatment of pneumonia with
  some initial improvement in symptoms.
• His chest discomfort returned and he developed
  progressive dyspnea on exertion which led to a
  chest radiography.

                                            Monday, December 31, 2012
Physical Exam
• The patient was in no acute distress.
• Vital signs were unremarkable.
• Cardiac exam demonstrated regular rate and rhythm with
  no murmur, gallop or rub.
• Lungs were clear to auscultation bilaterally without
  wheezes or rales.
• Abdomen was soft with no hepato/spleno-megaly.
• There was no palpable cervical, supra-clavicular or axillary
  lymphadenopathy.
• Genitourinary exam was negative for testicular masses.
  Neurologic exam showed no focal deficits.
• Cranial nerves appeared intact.

                                                 Monday, December 31, 2012
Lab
• White blood cell count 7.2 K/uL, 56% Neutrophils,
  28% Lymphocytes, 7% Eosinophils
• Chemistry and liver function testing was within
  normal limits
• Human chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG), serum
  <0.5 MIU/mL (normal in males <5.0 MIU/ml)
• Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP), serum 2.2 NG/mL
  (normal 0.0-8.3 NG/ML)

                                       Monday, December 31, 2012
cxr




      Monday, December 31, 2012
Ct




     Monday, December 31, 2012
• An abnormality was noted in the left
  mediastinum which prompted his physician to
  order a computed tomography (CT) of the
  chest and to refer him to a pulmonary
  specialist.
• This CT scan revealed a rounded, well-
  demarcated mass in the superoanterior
  mediastinal compartment.
• The largest diameter measured 6.8 x 4.8cm.

                                   Monday, December 31, 2012
Question 1
• What is the most common cause of an
  anterior mediastinal neoplasm?

•   A. Germ cell tumor
•   B. Lymphoma
•   C. Parathyroid adenoma
•   D. Thymoma

                              Monday, December 31, 2012
Discussion
•   The mediastinum is located in the central portion of the thorax.
•   The boundaries are the pleural cavities laterally, the thoracic inlet superiorly and the
    diaphragm inferiorly.
•   The anterior compartment refers to the retrosternal space that is anterior to the heart and
    great vessels.
•   It contains the thymus, lymph nodes, adipose and connective tissue.
•   Approximately one half of mediastinal tumors occur in the anterior mediastinum1.
•   Thymomas, lymphomas and germ cell tumors are the most frequently diagnosed tumors of
    the anterior mediastinum with a relative incidence of 30%, 20% and 18%, respectively 2.
•   Thymomas are the most common neoplasm of the anterior mediastinum with an incidence
    of 0.15 cases per 100,0003.
•   Interestingly, mass location tends to predict malignancy.
•   Approximately two thirds of all mediastinal tumors are benign, but masses in the anterior
    compartment are more likely to be malignant1.
•    A retrospective review of 400 patients by Davis et al found that 59% of anterior masses
    were malignant, compared to masses in middle mediastinum (29%) and posterior
    mediastinum (16%)2.

                                                                          Monday, December 31, 2012
Question 2
• What is the most common presenting
  symptom in a patient with a mediastinal
  mass?
•   A. Chest pain Systemic
•   B. Dysphagia
•   C. Hemoptysis
•   D. "B" symptoms (fever, weight loss, night
    sweats)

                                        Monday, December 31, 2012
Discussion
• About two thirds (62%) of patients with mediastinal
  masses of any etiology will have symptoms at the time of
  diagnosis2.
• Chest pain is the most frequently reported symptom
  (30%) followed by fever and chills (20%)2.
• Anterior mediastinal masses produce symptoms at a
  greater frequency (75%) than masses from middle or
  posterior compartments, 45% and 50% respectively2.
• Similar to mass location, presence of symptoms at
  diagnosis also predicts malignancy.
• Overall, 85% of patients with a malignant neoplasm were
  symptomatic at presentation, while only 46% of patients
  with benign neoplasms had symptoms2.

                                              Monday, December 31, 2012
Question 3
• What is the most common syndrome
  associated with thymoma?
•   A. Hypogammaglobulinemia
•   B. Myasthenia gravis
•   C. Pure red cell aplasia
•   D. Superior vena cava syndrome


                                     Monday, December 31, 2012
Discussion
•   Symptoms of myasthenia gravis include generalized weakness and fatigue, along with diplopia, ptosis
    and dysphagia.
•   Myasthenia gravis occurs in 30-50% of patients with thymoma; however, only about 15% of patients
    with myasthenia gravis have a thymoma4.
•   Given this strong association between thymoma and myasthenia gravis, it is recommended that all
    patients diagnosed with myasthenia gravis undergo CT or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to evaluate
    the mediastinum for thymoma.
•   Conversely, all patients with clinically suspected thymoma should have a serum antiacetylcholine
    receptor antibody level examined even if they are asymptomatic1.
•   Thymectomy gradually alleviates symptoms in approximately 25% of myasthenic patients with
    thymoma5.
•   Thymoma has been associated with a number of other paraneoplastic syndromes as well.
•   Hypogammaglobulinemia is then next most common paraneoplastic syndrome, and is present in
    approximately 10% of patients with thymoma6.
•    Pure red cell aplasia and Good syndrome have also been reported to be associated with thymoma in
    rare cases.
•   The patient was referred to thoracic surgery for a surgical biopsy as the diagnosis was in question.
•   A left parasternal mediastinoscopy (Chamberlain approach) was performed. Pathology from this
    specimen revealed small fragments of thymic tissue with preservation of normal architecture.
•   There was no histologic evidence to support malignancy and flow cytometry was negative for
    lymphoma.
•   A positron emission tomography (PET) scan revealed diffuse mild activity; the standardized uptake value
    (SUV) max was 3.9, consistent with benign thymic tissue.
•   He was diagnosed with rebound thymic hyperplasia following the viral illness in the weeks prior to
    presentation.
                                                                                   Monday, December 31, 2012
Question 4
• Which condition(s) is/are associated
  with Rebound Thymic Hyperplasia
  (RTH)?
•   A. Addison disease
•   B. Cancer, post chemotherapy
•   C. Hyperthyroidism
•   D. Severe burns
•   E. All of the above

                                   Monday, December 31, 2012
Discussion
• Rebound thymic hyperplasia (RTH) is a form of true thymic
  hyperplasia which can occur in children and young adults
  recovering from systemic illness or after treatment of various
  malignancies.
• It is characterized by generalized hyperplasia with preservation of
  normal thymic architecture and immunohistologic appearance7.
• RTH has been documented in many clinical conditions including
  hyperthyroidism, Addison disease, severe burns or after
  chemotherapy8.
• During stress, the thymus may shrink to 40% of its original
  volume; then over time usually grows back to its original size
  within 9 months9.
• In RTH, the thymus can grow 50% larger than its original size9.
• This may present a diagnostic challenge as RTH can clinically or
  radiologically mimic recurrent or metastatic mediastinal
  neoplasms.
                                                      Monday, December 31, 2012
Question 5
• What is the treatment of choice for
  RTH?
•   A. Chemotherapy
•   B. Observation
•   C. Radiation therapy
•   D. Surgical resection


                                 Monday, December 31, 2012
Discussion
• The thymus is functionally active in childhood and adolescence
  and may be susceptible to fluctuation in corticosteroid levels10.
• The reversal of elevated endogenous corticosteroids in many of
  the aforementioned conditions is thought to be a causative factor
  in RTH10.
• Although steroids will shrink a hyperplastic thymus11 this is usually
  not necessary as the transient overgrowth will resolve over time.
• The patient was observed with follow up CT scans of his chest.
• The mass had decreased by greater than 50% of its original size at
  3 months.
• At 6 months (Figure 5) and 9 months the CT chest continued to
  show further decrease in size of the mediastinal mass with no
  evidence of local invasion or progressive lymphadenopathy.
                                                       Monday, December 31, 2012
Monday, December 31, 2012
chest ct cases-7
    Dr :anas sahle
  http://www.facebook.com/dranas224
images 1 and 2.
Look at images 1 and 2.
• This case shows multiple nodules.
• Asymmetry of the lungs is due to collapse of
  the left upper lobe.
• 1. Are the nodules focal or diffuse?
• 2. What is the anatomic location of the
  nodules?
• a) Primarily bronchovascular
  b) Primarily centrilobular
  c) Primarily pleural
  d) Random
Look at images 1 and 2.
• This case shows multiple nodules.
• Asymmetry of the lungs is due to collapse of the
  left upper lobe.
• 1. Are the nodules focal or diffuse?
• diffuse
• 2. What is the anatomic location of the
  nodules?
•   a) Primarily bronchovascular
•   b) Primarily centrilobular
•   c) Primarily pleural
•   d) Random
HRCT-1
HRCT-1

• Find the left upper lobe bronchus leading into
  the left upper lobe.
• Outline the collapsed left upper lobe.
• In the right lung, find 3 pleural nodules.
• Find 3 nodules at the end of vessels in the
  right lung.
• Find 4 or 5 nodules along the fissure (F) in the
  right lung.
HRCT-1
HRCT-2
HRCT-2


• Find 2 centrilobular nodules in the right lung.
• Find a nodule at the end of a vessel in the
  posterior right lung.
HRCT-2
Histology of a Nodule
Q
• This rounded, subpleural structure, about 0.5
  cm in diameter, corresponds to the subpleural
  lesions in the images above.
• In this case, no cellular structures are present
  except at the edge.
• 1. What are possible causes of this nodule?
• 2. What does the homogeneous pink material
  in the nodule represent?
Answer

• 1. Possible causes include infection and tumor.
   – This particular patient had known
     metastatic testicular carcinoma.
   – The necrosis of the tumor may have
     resulted from therapy or ischemia or both.
• 2. The homogeneous pink material represents
  necrosis.
Differential diagnosis of random nodules
                  on HRCT:



• hematogenous metastasis (particularly from thyroid,
  kidney, and breast)
• Miliary infections.
Langerhans' cell histiocytosis, sarcoidosis, and silicosis are common causes of
         nodules, but such nodules are rarely diffuse and haphazard.
Histologic differential diagnosis:




• Metastatic tumor.
• Infection should be considered.
HRCT diagnosis:



• Metastatic breast cancer with hematogenous
  spread throughout the lungs and
  endobronchial metastasis to the left upper
  lobe, resulting in collapse.
Summary



• diagnostic features of numerous
  hematogenous metastatic nodules on HRCT
     • Usually random distribution
     • Often smooth, well-defined
     • Varying size common
Monday, December 31, 2012
MRCP EXAM
  Respiratory




                12/31/2012
Q1
A 9 month old child presents with respiratory distress,
  worsening over 2 days. Blood gases show a
pH of 7.25, a PCO of 7.5kPa, a PO of 8.5kPa, and a base
                 2               2


  excess of -4.

• A -Results are consistent with bronchopulmonary
  dysplasia.
• B -Blood gases suggest type 1 respiratory failure.
• C- Immediate intubation is required.
• D -Results are consistent with late severe asthma.
• E -Bicarbonate may be necessary to correct the
  acidosis.


                                                  12/31/2012
A1
A 9 month old child presents with respiratory
  distress, worsening over 2 days. Blood gases
  show a
pH of 7.25, a PCO of 7.5kPa, a PO of 8.5kPa, and a
                          2                       2


  base excess of -4.

• A -Results are consistent with bronchopulmonary dysplasia.
  (False)
• B -Blood gases suggest type 1 respiratory failure. (False)
• C- Immediate intubation is required. (False)
• D -Results are consistent with late severe
  asthma.(true)
• E -Bicarbonate may be necessary to correct the acidosis. (False)

                                                                     12/31/2012
Q2
• Long-acting ß2 agonists:

• A -Can be used to prevent activity-induced
  symptoms without anti-inflammatory therapy.
• B- Become less effective over time (tolerance).
• C- Are beneficial in acute viral croup.
• D- Protect against allergen challenge for up to
  48 hours.
• E -Should not be used in association with
  erythromycin.

                                      Monday, December 31, 2012
A2
• Long-acting ß2 agonists:

• A -Can be used to prevent activity-induced
  symptoms without anti-inflammatory
  therapy.(true)
• B- Become less effective over time (tolerance). (False)
• C- Are beneficial in acute viral croup. (False)
• D- Protect against allergen challenge for up to 48
  hours. (False)
• E -Should not be used in association with
  erythromycin. (False)

                                            Monday, December 31, 2012
Q3
The oxygen dissociation curve is
shifted to the right by:
A- Decreased haemoglobin concentration
B- Reduced temperature
C- Reduced pH
D- Increased partial pressure of carbon
dioxide
E- Increased DPG

                              Monday, December 31, 2012
A3
The oxygen dissociation curve is
shifted to the right by:
A- Decreased haemoglobin concentration (False)
B- Reduced temperature (False)
C- Reduced pH (True)
D- Increased partial pressure of carbon
dioxide (True)
E- Increased DPG (True)

                                   Monday, December 31, 2012
Q4
In lung empyema:

A- Strep. pneumoniae is usually isolated from
the pleural cavity.
B- Installation of urokinase may be helpful.
C- Anti-TB triple therapy is indicated if the fever
does not settle within 14 days.
D- An underlying malignancy should be
excluded.
E- Initial treatment of the pneumonia has been
inadequate.

                                         Monday, December 31, 2012
A4
In lung empyema:

A- Strep. pneumoniae is usually isolated from the pleural
cavity. (False)
B- Installation of urokinase may be helpful. (True)
C- Anti-TB triple therapy is indicated if the fever does not
settle within 14 days. (False)
D- An underlying malignancy should be
excluded. (True)
E- Initial treatment of the pneumonia has been
inadequate. (False)

                                               Monday, December 31, 2012
Q5
Regarding lung development:

A- The pseudoglandular phase lasts between 16 and 26
weeks.
B- Alveolar capillaries first appear about 20 weeks of
gestation.
C- The primitive airways appear as a dorsal outpouching of
the foregut epithelium.
D- The pulmonary vascularture is derived from endoderm.
E- The peribronchial mesenchyme (spalnchnopleura) plays
an essential role in shaping the lungs during
embryogenesis.



                                              Monday, December 31, 2012
A5
Regarding lung development:

A- The pseudoglandular phase lasts between 16 and 26 weeks.
(False)
B- Alveolar capillaries first appear about 20 weeks of gestation.
(False)
C- The primitive airways appear as a dorsal outpouching of the
foregut epithelium. (False)
D- The pulmonary vascularture is derived from endoderm.
(False)
E- The peribronchial mesenchyme (spalnchnopleura)
plays an essential role in shaping the lungs during
embryogenesis. (True)

                                                    Monday, December 31, 2012
Q6
Recognised causes of acute upper
airway obstruction include:
A- Angio-oedema
B- Asthma
C- Mumps
D- Retro-pharyngeal abscess
E- Laryngomalacia

                              Monday, December 31, 2012
A6
Recognised causes of acute upper
airway obstruction include:
A- Angio-oedema(True)
B- Asthma(False)
C- Mumps(False)
D- Retro-pharyngeal abscess(True)
E- Laryngomalacia(False)

                              Monday, December 31, 2012
Q7
The following lung function tests are
compatible with severe scoliosis:
A- An FEV1 of 65% of normal.
B- An FEV1/2 of 65% of normal.
C- Total lung capacity of 95% of normal.
D- Tidal volume of 105% of normal.
E- Peak flow of 50% of normal.

                                Monday, December 31, 2012
A7
The following lung function tests are
compatible with severe scoliosis:
A- An FEV1 of 65% of normal. (True)
B- An FEV1/2 of 65% of normal. (False)
C- Total lung capacity of 95% of normal. (False)
D- Tidal volume of 105% of normal. (True)
E- Peak flow of 50% of normal. (True)

                                     Monday, December 31, 2012
Q8
Concerning Tuberculosis:

A- The infection rate is increased in Crohn's Disease.
B- Overcrowded living conditions do not
significantly affect prevalence.
C- The treatment of lymph node infection is of a
greater duration than pulmonary infection.
D- The tuberculin skin test is a good indicator of
disease activity.
E- In pregnant women treatment should be delayed
until after birth.


                                          Monday, December 31, 2012
A8
Concerning Tuberculosis:

A- The infection rate is increased in Crohn's Disease. (False)
B- Overcrowded living conditions do not significantly affect
prevalence. (False)
C- The treatment of lymph node infection is of a greater
duration than pulmonary infection. (False)
D- The tuberculin skin test is a good indicator of disease
activity. (False)
E- In pregnant women treatment should be delayed until after
birth. (False)


                                                Monday, December 31, 2012
Q9
The following are signs of severe
asthma:

A- A silent chest in a 7 year old girl.
B- Inability to feed in a 10 month old child.
C- A heart rate of >90 in a 5 year old child.
D- Decreased right-sided breath sounds in a
10 year old girl.
E- A respiratory rate of 60 in a 2 year old
boy.
                                   Monday, December 31, 2012
A9
The following are signs of severe asthma:

A- A silent chest in a 7 year old girl. (True)
B- Inability to feed in a 10 month old child. (True)
C- A heart rate of >90 in a 5 year old child. (False)
D- Decreased right-sided breath sounds in a 10 year old
girl. (False)
E- A respiratory rate of 60 in a 2 year old boy.
(True)


                                           Monday, December 31, 2012
Q10
Lung biopsy may be useful in the following
cases:
A- A 6 month old boy ventilated for adenovirus
infection.
B- A 2 year old with leukaemia and possible
adreamycin toxicity.
C- A 4 year old child with dense lower zone
opacities on chest x-ray.
D- A 3 month old Afro-Caribbean boy with
"ground glass" chest x-ray.
E- A 4 month old with severe confirmed RSV
positive bronchiolitis.
                                     Monday, December 31, 2012
A10
Lung biopsy may be useful in the following
cases:
A- A 6 month old boy ventilated for adenovirus
infection. (True)
B- A 2 year old with leukaemia and possible adreamycin
toxicity. (False)
C- A 4 year old child with dense lower zone opacities on
chest x-ray. (False)
D- A 3 month old Afro-Caribbean boy with
"ground glass" chest x-ray. (True)
E- A 4 month old with severe confirmed RSV positive
bronchiolitis. (False)
                                             Monday, December 31, 2012
Monday, December 31, 2012

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Anwser,s 8

  • 1. Anwser,s Dr :ANAS SAHLE 1. Chest xr cases. 2. Chest clinical case. 3. Chest ct cases. 4. MRCP exam. :http://www.facebook.com/dranas224 Monday, December 31, 2012
  • 2. chest xr cases Dr :anas sahle http://www.facebook.com/dranas224
  • 3. CXR-31 DIAGNOSIS: Aneurysm of Descending Aorta
  • 4. CXR-32 DIAGNOSIS: Fungous Ball Crescent sign - semilunar air space above mass density
  • 5. CXR-33a Aspergillosis Sub-acute Invasive Form
  • 6. CXR-33b Cavitation with return of white count Resembling fungous ball with crescentic air Non- mobile fungous ball
  • 7. CXR-33c Cavitation with return of white count Resembling fungous ball with crescentic air Non- mobile fungous ball
  • 10. CXR-35b Lingular pneumonia Lingular pneumonia Post obstructive pneumonia Post obstructive pneumonia DIAGNOSIS: Broncholith
  • 11. DIAGNOSIS: Broncholith Monday, December 31, 2012
  • 12. CXR-36 DIAGNOSIS: Left Cervical Rib You identify the rib by the transverse process with which it articulates. A: Transverse process cervical vertebra: Horizontal B: Transverse process dorsal vertebra: Upward
  • 14. Note • Stomach bubble on left • Right diaphragm lower – Position of heart determines which diaphragm is lower, not liver. • Pectus accounts for increased density on left Monday, December 31, 2012
  • 15. CXR-38 DIAGNOSIS: Dextrocardia / Kertagener's Syndrome:
  • 17. chest clinical cases A 20 Year-Old with a Mediastinal Mass Submitted by Tyler B. Anderson, MD Fellow Division of Pulmonary, Allergy, Critical Care and Sleep Medicine The Ohio State University Medical Center Columbus, Ohio Jonathan P. Parsons, MD, MSc, FCCP Associate Professor of Internal Medicine Division of Pulmonary, Allergy, Critical Care and Sleep Medicine The Ohio State University Medical Center Columbus, Ohio
  • 18. History • A 20 year old Caucasian man with no significant past medical history presented to his primary care physician for chest discomfort and cough. • Two months prior to presentation, he reported having an unremarkable viral syndrome which resolved with no medical intervention. • His primary care physician prescribed a short course of antibiotics for empiric treatment of pneumonia with some initial improvement in symptoms. • His chest discomfort returned and he developed progressive dyspnea on exertion which led to a chest radiography. Monday, December 31, 2012
  • 19. Physical Exam • The patient was in no acute distress. • Vital signs were unremarkable. • Cardiac exam demonstrated regular rate and rhythm with no murmur, gallop or rub. • Lungs were clear to auscultation bilaterally without wheezes or rales. • Abdomen was soft with no hepato/spleno-megaly. • There was no palpable cervical, supra-clavicular or axillary lymphadenopathy. • Genitourinary exam was negative for testicular masses. Neurologic exam showed no focal deficits. • Cranial nerves appeared intact. Monday, December 31, 2012
  • 20. Lab • White blood cell count 7.2 K/uL, 56% Neutrophils, 28% Lymphocytes, 7% Eosinophils • Chemistry and liver function testing was within normal limits • Human chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG), serum <0.5 MIU/mL (normal in males <5.0 MIU/ml) • Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP), serum 2.2 NG/mL (normal 0.0-8.3 NG/ML) Monday, December 31, 2012
  • 21. cxr Monday, December 31, 2012
  • 22. Ct Monday, December 31, 2012
  • 23. • An abnormality was noted in the left mediastinum which prompted his physician to order a computed tomography (CT) of the chest and to refer him to a pulmonary specialist. • This CT scan revealed a rounded, well- demarcated mass in the superoanterior mediastinal compartment. • The largest diameter measured 6.8 x 4.8cm. Monday, December 31, 2012
  • 24. Question 1 • What is the most common cause of an anterior mediastinal neoplasm? • A. Germ cell tumor • B. Lymphoma • C. Parathyroid adenoma • D. Thymoma Monday, December 31, 2012
  • 25. Discussion • The mediastinum is located in the central portion of the thorax. • The boundaries are the pleural cavities laterally, the thoracic inlet superiorly and the diaphragm inferiorly. • The anterior compartment refers to the retrosternal space that is anterior to the heart and great vessels. • It contains the thymus, lymph nodes, adipose and connective tissue. • Approximately one half of mediastinal tumors occur in the anterior mediastinum1. • Thymomas, lymphomas and germ cell tumors are the most frequently diagnosed tumors of the anterior mediastinum with a relative incidence of 30%, 20% and 18%, respectively 2. • Thymomas are the most common neoplasm of the anterior mediastinum with an incidence of 0.15 cases per 100,0003. • Interestingly, mass location tends to predict malignancy. • Approximately two thirds of all mediastinal tumors are benign, but masses in the anterior compartment are more likely to be malignant1. • A retrospective review of 400 patients by Davis et al found that 59% of anterior masses were malignant, compared to masses in middle mediastinum (29%) and posterior mediastinum (16%)2. Monday, December 31, 2012
  • 26. Question 2 • What is the most common presenting symptom in a patient with a mediastinal mass? • A. Chest pain Systemic • B. Dysphagia • C. Hemoptysis • D. "B" symptoms (fever, weight loss, night sweats) Monday, December 31, 2012
  • 27. Discussion • About two thirds (62%) of patients with mediastinal masses of any etiology will have symptoms at the time of diagnosis2. • Chest pain is the most frequently reported symptom (30%) followed by fever and chills (20%)2. • Anterior mediastinal masses produce symptoms at a greater frequency (75%) than masses from middle or posterior compartments, 45% and 50% respectively2. • Similar to mass location, presence of symptoms at diagnosis also predicts malignancy. • Overall, 85% of patients with a malignant neoplasm were symptomatic at presentation, while only 46% of patients with benign neoplasms had symptoms2. Monday, December 31, 2012
  • 28. Question 3 • What is the most common syndrome associated with thymoma? • A. Hypogammaglobulinemia • B. Myasthenia gravis • C. Pure red cell aplasia • D. Superior vena cava syndrome Monday, December 31, 2012
  • 29. Discussion • Symptoms of myasthenia gravis include generalized weakness and fatigue, along with diplopia, ptosis and dysphagia. • Myasthenia gravis occurs in 30-50% of patients with thymoma; however, only about 15% of patients with myasthenia gravis have a thymoma4. • Given this strong association between thymoma and myasthenia gravis, it is recommended that all patients diagnosed with myasthenia gravis undergo CT or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to evaluate the mediastinum for thymoma. • Conversely, all patients with clinically suspected thymoma should have a serum antiacetylcholine receptor antibody level examined even if they are asymptomatic1. • Thymectomy gradually alleviates symptoms in approximately 25% of myasthenic patients with thymoma5. • Thymoma has been associated with a number of other paraneoplastic syndromes as well. • Hypogammaglobulinemia is then next most common paraneoplastic syndrome, and is present in approximately 10% of patients with thymoma6. • Pure red cell aplasia and Good syndrome have also been reported to be associated with thymoma in rare cases. • The patient was referred to thoracic surgery for a surgical biopsy as the diagnosis was in question. • A left parasternal mediastinoscopy (Chamberlain approach) was performed. Pathology from this specimen revealed small fragments of thymic tissue with preservation of normal architecture. • There was no histologic evidence to support malignancy and flow cytometry was negative for lymphoma. • A positron emission tomography (PET) scan revealed diffuse mild activity; the standardized uptake value (SUV) max was 3.9, consistent with benign thymic tissue. • He was diagnosed with rebound thymic hyperplasia following the viral illness in the weeks prior to presentation. Monday, December 31, 2012
  • 30. Question 4 • Which condition(s) is/are associated with Rebound Thymic Hyperplasia (RTH)? • A. Addison disease • B. Cancer, post chemotherapy • C. Hyperthyroidism • D. Severe burns • E. All of the above Monday, December 31, 2012
  • 31. Discussion • Rebound thymic hyperplasia (RTH) is a form of true thymic hyperplasia which can occur in children and young adults recovering from systemic illness or after treatment of various malignancies. • It is characterized by generalized hyperplasia with preservation of normal thymic architecture and immunohistologic appearance7. • RTH has been documented in many clinical conditions including hyperthyroidism, Addison disease, severe burns or after chemotherapy8. • During stress, the thymus may shrink to 40% of its original volume; then over time usually grows back to its original size within 9 months9. • In RTH, the thymus can grow 50% larger than its original size9. • This may present a diagnostic challenge as RTH can clinically or radiologically mimic recurrent or metastatic mediastinal neoplasms. Monday, December 31, 2012
  • 32. Question 5 • What is the treatment of choice for RTH? • A. Chemotherapy • B. Observation • C. Radiation therapy • D. Surgical resection Monday, December 31, 2012
  • 33. Discussion • The thymus is functionally active in childhood and adolescence and may be susceptible to fluctuation in corticosteroid levels10. • The reversal of elevated endogenous corticosteroids in many of the aforementioned conditions is thought to be a causative factor in RTH10. • Although steroids will shrink a hyperplastic thymus11 this is usually not necessary as the transient overgrowth will resolve over time. • The patient was observed with follow up CT scans of his chest. • The mass had decreased by greater than 50% of its original size at 3 months. • At 6 months (Figure 5) and 9 months the CT chest continued to show further decrease in size of the mediastinal mass with no evidence of local invasion or progressive lymphadenopathy. Monday, December 31, 2012
  • 35. chest ct cases-7 Dr :anas sahle http://www.facebook.com/dranas224
  • 37. Look at images 1 and 2. • This case shows multiple nodules. • Asymmetry of the lungs is due to collapse of the left upper lobe. • 1. Are the nodules focal or diffuse? • 2. What is the anatomic location of the nodules? • a) Primarily bronchovascular b) Primarily centrilobular c) Primarily pleural d) Random
  • 38. Look at images 1 and 2. • This case shows multiple nodules. • Asymmetry of the lungs is due to collapse of the left upper lobe. • 1. Are the nodules focal or diffuse? • diffuse • 2. What is the anatomic location of the nodules? • a) Primarily bronchovascular • b) Primarily centrilobular • c) Primarily pleural • d) Random
  • 40. HRCT-1 • Find the left upper lobe bronchus leading into the left upper lobe. • Outline the collapsed left upper lobe. • In the right lung, find 3 pleural nodules. • Find 3 nodules at the end of vessels in the right lung. • Find 4 or 5 nodules along the fissure (F) in the right lung.
  • 43. HRCT-2 • Find 2 centrilobular nodules in the right lung. • Find a nodule at the end of a vessel in the posterior right lung.
  • 45. Histology of a Nodule
  • 46. Q • This rounded, subpleural structure, about 0.5 cm in diameter, corresponds to the subpleural lesions in the images above. • In this case, no cellular structures are present except at the edge. • 1. What are possible causes of this nodule? • 2. What does the homogeneous pink material in the nodule represent?
  • 47. Answer • 1. Possible causes include infection and tumor. – This particular patient had known metastatic testicular carcinoma. – The necrosis of the tumor may have resulted from therapy or ischemia or both. • 2. The homogeneous pink material represents necrosis.
  • 48. Differential diagnosis of random nodules on HRCT: • hematogenous metastasis (particularly from thyroid, kidney, and breast) • Miliary infections. Langerhans' cell histiocytosis, sarcoidosis, and silicosis are common causes of nodules, but such nodules are rarely diffuse and haphazard.
  • 49. Histologic differential diagnosis: • Metastatic tumor. • Infection should be considered.
  • 50. HRCT diagnosis: • Metastatic breast cancer with hematogenous spread throughout the lungs and endobronchial metastasis to the left upper lobe, resulting in collapse.
  • 51. Summary • diagnostic features of numerous hematogenous metastatic nodules on HRCT • Usually random distribution • Often smooth, well-defined • Varying size common
  • 53. MRCP EXAM Respiratory 12/31/2012
  • 54. Q1 A 9 month old child presents with respiratory distress, worsening over 2 days. Blood gases show a pH of 7.25, a PCO of 7.5kPa, a PO of 8.5kPa, and a base 2 2 excess of -4. • A -Results are consistent with bronchopulmonary dysplasia. • B -Blood gases suggest type 1 respiratory failure. • C- Immediate intubation is required. • D -Results are consistent with late severe asthma. • E -Bicarbonate may be necessary to correct the acidosis. 12/31/2012
  • 55. A1 A 9 month old child presents with respiratory distress, worsening over 2 days. Blood gases show a pH of 7.25, a PCO of 7.5kPa, a PO of 8.5kPa, and a 2 2 base excess of -4. • A -Results are consistent with bronchopulmonary dysplasia. (False) • B -Blood gases suggest type 1 respiratory failure. (False) • C- Immediate intubation is required. (False) • D -Results are consistent with late severe asthma.(true) • E -Bicarbonate may be necessary to correct the acidosis. (False) 12/31/2012
  • 56. Q2 • Long-acting ß2 agonists: • A -Can be used to prevent activity-induced symptoms without anti-inflammatory therapy. • B- Become less effective over time (tolerance). • C- Are beneficial in acute viral croup. • D- Protect against allergen challenge for up to 48 hours. • E -Should not be used in association with erythromycin. Monday, December 31, 2012
  • 57. A2 • Long-acting ß2 agonists: • A -Can be used to prevent activity-induced symptoms without anti-inflammatory therapy.(true) • B- Become less effective over time (tolerance). (False) • C- Are beneficial in acute viral croup. (False) • D- Protect against allergen challenge for up to 48 hours. (False) • E -Should not be used in association with erythromycin. (False) Monday, December 31, 2012
  • 58. Q3 The oxygen dissociation curve is shifted to the right by: A- Decreased haemoglobin concentration B- Reduced temperature C- Reduced pH D- Increased partial pressure of carbon dioxide E- Increased DPG Monday, December 31, 2012
  • 59. A3 The oxygen dissociation curve is shifted to the right by: A- Decreased haemoglobin concentration (False) B- Reduced temperature (False) C- Reduced pH (True) D- Increased partial pressure of carbon dioxide (True) E- Increased DPG (True) Monday, December 31, 2012
  • 60. Q4 In lung empyema: A- Strep. pneumoniae is usually isolated from the pleural cavity. B- Installation of urokinase may be helpful. C- Anti-TB triple therapy is indicated if the fever does not settle within 14 days. D- An underlying malignancy should be excluded. E- Initial treatment of the pneumonia has been inadequate. Monday, December 31, 2012
  • 61. A4 In lung empyema: A- Strep. pneumoniae is usually isolated from the pleural cavity. (False) B- Installation of urokinase may be helpful. (True) C- Anti-TB triple therapy is indicated if the fever does not settle within 14 days. (False) D- An underlying malignancy should be excluded. (True) E- Initial treatment of the pneumonia has been inadequate. (False) Monday, December 31, 2012
  • 62. Q5 Regarding lung development: A- The pseudoglandular phase lasts between 16 and 26 weeks. B- Alveolar capillaries first appear about 20 weeks of gestation. C- The primitive airways appear as a dorsal outpouching of the foregut epithelium. D- The pulmonary vascularture is derived from endoderm. E- The peribronchial mesenchyme (spalnchnopleura) plays an essential role in shaping the lungs during embryogenesis. Monday, December 31, 2012
  • 63. A5 Regarding lung development: A- The pseudoglandular phase lasts between 16 and 26 weeks. (False) B- Alveolar capillaries first appear about 20 weeks of gestation. (False) C- The primitive airways appear as a dorsal outpouching of the foregut epithelium. (False) D- The pulmonary vascularture is derived from endoderm. (False) E- The peribronchial mesenchyme (spalnchnopleura) plays an essential role in shaping the lungs during embryogenesis. (True) Monday, December 31, 2012
  • 64. Q6 Recognised causes of acute upper airway obstruction include: A- Angio-oedema B- Asthma C- Mumps D- Retro-pharyngeal abscess E- Laryngomalacia Monday, December 31, 2012
  • 65. A6 Recognised causes of acute upper airway obstruction include: A- Angio-oedema(True) B- Asthma(False) C- Mumps(False) D- Retro-pharyngeal abscess(True) E- Laryngomalacia(False) Monday, December 31, 2012
  • 66. Q7 The following lung function tests are compatible with severe scoliosis: A- An FEV1 of 65% of normal. B- An FEV1/2 of 65% of normal. C- Total lung capacity of 95% of normal. D- Tidal volume of 105% of normal. E- Peak flow of 50% of normal. Monday, December 31, 2012
  • 67. A7 The following lung function tests are compatible with severe scoliosis: A- An FEV1 of 65% of normal. (True) B- An FEV1/2 of 65% of normal. (False) C- Total lung capacity of 95% of normal. (False) D- Tidal volume of 105% of normal. (True) E- Peak flow of 50% of normal. (True) Monday, December 31, 2012
  • 68. Q8 Concerning Tuberculosis: A- The infection rate is increased in Crohn's Disease. B- Overcrowded living conditions do not significantly affect prevalence. C- The treatment of lymph node infection is of a greater duration than pulmonary infection. D- The tuberculin skin test is a good indicator of disease activity. E- In pregnant women treatment should be delayed until after birth. Monday, December 31, 2012
  • 69. A8 Concerning Tuberculosis: A- The infection rate is increased in Crohn's Disease. (False) B- Overcrowded living conditions do not significantly affect prevalence. (False) C- The treatment of lymph node infection is of a greater duration than pulmonary infection. (False) D- The tuberculin skin test is a good indicator of disease activity. (False) E- In pregnant women treatment should be delayed until after birth. (False) Monday, December 31, 2012
  • 70. Q9 The following are signs of severe asthma: A- A silent chest in a 7 year old girl. B- Inability to feed in a 10 month old child. C- A heart rate of >90 in a 5 year old child. D- Decreased right-sided breath sounds in a 10 year old girl. E- A respiratory rate of 60 in a 2 year old boy. Monday, December 31, 2012
  • 71. A9 The following are signs of severe asthma: A- A silent chest in a 7 year old girl. (True) B- Inability to feed in a 10 month old child. (True) C- A heart rate of >90 in a 5 year old child. (False) D- Decreased right-sided breath sounds in a 10 year old girl. (False) E- A respiratory rate of 60 in a 2 year old boy. (True) Monday, December 31, 2012
  • 72. Q10 Lung biopsy may be useful in the following cases: A- A 6 month old boy ventilated for adenovirus infection. B- A 2 year old with leukaemia and possible adreamycin toxicity. C- A 4 year old child with dense lower zone opacities on chest x-ray. D- A 3 month old Afro-Caribbean boy with "ground glass" chest x-ray. E- A 4 month old with severe confirmed RSV positive bronchiolitis. Monday, December 31, 2012
  • 73. A10 Lung biopsy may be useful in the following cases: A- A 6 month old boy ventilated for adenovirus infection. (True) B- A 2 year old with leukaemia and possible adreamycin toxicity. (False) C- A 4 year old child with dense lower zone opacities on chest x-ray. (False) D- A 3 month old Afro-Caribbean boy with "ground glass" chest x-ray. (True) E- A 4 month old with severe confirmed RSV positive bronchiolitis. (False) Monday, December 31, 2012