The NIFT UG technology sample question paper GAT gives you preview of Questions asked.

1. Page 1
UGTG/I
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER-I
UNDERGRADUATEPROGRAMMEIN
FASHION TECHNOLOGY
GENERALABILITYTEST—PAPER-I
Time Allowed : 2 Hours Max. Marks : 100
Total Questions : 100
This test comprises the following sub-tests.
(1) Quantitative Ability
(2) Communication Ability
(3) English Comprehension
(4) Analytical Ability
(5) General Science, Physics & Chemistry
(6) Thematic Apperception Test
(i) Each question carries one mark.
(ii) Answers are required to be marked only on the OMR/ICR Answer-Sheet, which shall be provided separately.
(iii) For each question, four alternative answers have been provided out of which only one is correct. Darken the
appropriate circle in the Answer-Sheet by using Ball Pen only on the best alternative amongst (a), (b), (c) or (d).
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
1. If tan θ = and cot φ = 3, then the value of θ + φ is
(a) (b) (c) 0 (d) π
2. The value of tan 81°°°°° -- tan 63°°°°° -- tan 27°°°°° + tan 9°°°°° is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
3. The maximum value of sin (x + ) + cos (x + ) in the interval (0, ) is attained when x is equal to
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4. The value of 10 Cot (Cot
--1
3 + Cot
--1
7 + Cot
--1
13 + Cot
--1
21) is
(a) 7 (b) 9 (c) 15 (d) 17
5. If x = cos 36°°°°° -- cos 72°°°°°, then value of x equals
(a) (b) (c) 3--√6 (d) 2√3--3
6. Let P(A) = , P(B) = and P(A∩B) = . Then P(A
--
/B) is equal to
(a) (b) (c) (d)
7. The probability that event A occurs is ; the probability that event B is . Let p be the probability that both A and
B occur. The smallest interval necessarily containing p is the interval
(a) (b) (c) (d)
π
6
π
6
π
2
π
2
π
3
π
6
π
12
1
3
1
2
7
13
9
13
4
13
1
3
4
9
5
9
7
9
2
3
3
4
[ , ]1
12
1
2 [ , ]5
12
1
2 [ , ]1
2
2
3 [ , ]5
12
2
3
π
6
π
4
1
2
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2. Page 2
UGTG/I
8. A speaks truth in 75% cases and B in 80% cases. In what percentage of cases are they likely to contradict each
other narrating the same incident?
(a) 25% (b) 30% (c) 35% (d) 45%
9. If g(x) = 1--x2
and f [g(x)] = , x ≠ 0, then f(½) equals
(a) √2 (b) (c) (d) 1
10. If ax
+ ay
= ax+y
, then is
(a) (b) (c) (d)
11. If y = √[x + √{x + √(x + ... to ∞)}], then is equal to
(a) 1 (b) (c) (d)
12. Lim equals
x→o
(a) -- (b) -- (c) (d)
13. The angle of intersection of the curves
x3
-- 3xy2
+ 2 = 0 and 3x2
y -- y3
-- 2 = 0
(a) 45°°°°° (b) 30°°°°° (c) 90°°°°° (d) 60°°°°°
14. The height of the cylinder of maximum volume that can be inscribed in a sphere of radius x is
(a) x (b) (c) (d)
15. Consider the system:
x + y ≥ 4, x + 2y ≥ 6, 2x + 3y ≤ 12, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0.
Which of the following is not a corner point for the feasible region determind by the above system?
(a) (2, 2) (b) (1, 3) (c) (6, 0) (d) (0, 4)
16. ∫
0
π/π/π/π/π/2
equals
(a) 0 (b) (c) 1 (d) 2
17. ∫
11111
--1
|x| dx =
(a) --1 (b) 0 (c) (d) 1
18. The area in sq. units of the region bounded by the parabola y2
= 4x, x = 1, x = 4 and the x-axis in the first quadrant
is
(a) (b) (c) (d) 12
19. The equation of the curve, that passes through the point (0, a) and is such that at any point (x, y) on it, the product of
its slope and the ordinate is equal to the abscissa, is
(a) y2
= x2
+ a2
(b) x = y2
+ a2
(c) y = x2
+ a2
(d) y2
= --x2
+ a2
1
2
x
√3
2x
√3
√3x
4
1
2
dx
1 + sinx
4
3
28
3
32
3
dy
dx
ax
+ ay
ax
-- ay
ax
+ ay
ax+y
ay
(ay
--1)
ax
(1--ax
)
ax
(ay
--1)
ay
(1--ax
)
1
2y
1
y--2
1
2y--1
sin x -- x
x3( )
1
6
1
3
1
3
1
6
dy
dx
1--x2
x2
1
√2
3
4
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3. Page 3
UGTG/I
20. Particular solution of e = x + 1, given that when x = 0, y = 3, is
(a) y = (x + 1) log (x + 1) -- (x + 1) (b) y = (x + 1) log (x + 1) -- x + 2
(c) y = x log (x + 1) -- x + 3 (d) y = (x + 1) log (x + 1) -- x + 3
21. If A + B = and x = (1 + tan A) (1 + tan B), then xx
is equal to
(a) (√3)√√√√√3
(b) 1 (c) 4 (d) none of these
22. If tan x + cot x = 2, then
(tan x)√√√√√2+√√√√√3+n
+ (cot x)√√√√√17+√√√√√19+m
is equal to
(a) 2m+n--√√√√√2
(b) 2n--m+√√√√√3
(c) 2 (d) none of these
23. A point on the line 2x = 3y -- 25 nearest to the point (2, --3) is
(a) (b) (c) (d) none of these
24. The value of 1 a a2
1 b b2
when
1 c c2
a = 299, b = 298 and c = 297, is
(a) 2 (b) --2 (c) 1 (d) none of these
25. Then nth term of a series is ∑
n
r=1
tr
, where tr
= . Then the sum of 10 terms of the series is
(a) 440 (b) (c) 385 (d)
Direction (Q. Nos. 26-30) : Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate words.
26. I can’t help you because I am not______with English literature.
(a) accustomed (b) conversant (c) intimate (d) inclined
27. He cannot concentrate for very long; his attention is easily______.
(a) attracted (b) discarded (c) averted (d) diverted
28. Later he______how he could have made such a foolish mistake.
(a) wondered (b) thought (c) ruminated (d) asked
29. Drivers can______traffic accidents if they are more cautious.
(a) avert (b) ignore (c) escape (d) overcome
30. He tried to______open the stuck up lid of the box with a crowbar.
(a) rip (b) break (c) prise (d) tear
Direction (Q. Nos. 31-35) : Each of the following words in capital is followed by four choices. Choose the one nearest
in meaning to it.
31. CASTIGATE
(a) to accept (b) to reject (c) to ridicule (d) to demand
32. CHARISMA
(a) good fortune (b) public (c) influence (d) personality
dy
dx
π
4
r
3
385
6
440
6
( )75
13
475
39
, ( )50
13
425
39
,( )50
13
75
13
,--
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4. Page 4
UGTG/I
33. OPULENT
(a) old (b) luxurious (c) austere (d) extravagant
34. NOSTALGIA
(a) regret (b) dissatisfaction (c) pride (d) longing for past
35. AVARICE
(a) cruelty (b) gluttony (c) greed (d) dislike
Direction (Q. Nos. 36-40) : Each of the following words in capital is followed by four choices. Choose the one opposite
in meaning to it.
36. CONCISE
(a) lengthy (b) small (c) precise (d) ugly
37. AUTHENTIC
(a) real (b) genuine (c) serious (d) spurious
38. COMPRESS
(a) flat (b) expand (c) long (d) far
39. CORDIAL
(a) sweet (b) bitter (c) cold (d) warm
40. DIFFIDENT
(a) easy (b) confident (c) false (d) gentle
Direction (Q. Nos. 41-45) : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the
correct option.
PASSAGE
The man in the street now takes for granted the ideas of science and the fruits of technology, without asking from what
seeds they spring, how they work, or what may be their social repercussions. Rising standards of living spreading through
the world generate a demand for more and more applications of science. Througout the world the rich and the poor alike
insist that science, technology and industry should prosper as a gurantee against poverty and as the sign-post to happiness.
Rarely, if ever, has mankind turned its back on any new discovery or invention that has been produced through the
technological exploitation of scientific knowledge. We accept electric light and power without knowing how they came
about or how they work. We use the telephone and play the gramophone without knowing the scientific principles on
which either operates. Radio and television we take for granted.
41. How does man take advance in science and technology for granted?
(a) he doesn’t ask any questions about it (b) he asks for more and more inventions
(c) he enjoys radio and television (d) none of the above
42. What increases the demand for more applications of science?
(a) people are becoming richer day by day (b) new inventions are becoming cheaper
(c) standard of living is rising everywhere (d) none of the above
43. Why do all insist that science should prosper?
(a) it makes life cheaper (b) it is a guarantee against poverty
(c) it adds to human happiness (d) both (b) and (c)
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5. Page 5
UGTG/I
44. How do we know that man has rarely turned his back on new discoveries and inventions?
(a) he is optimistic about the future of mankind
(b) he is happy with the advances in science and technology
(c) he enjoys new gadgets without knowing the principles on which they work
(d) none of the above
45. What is the theme of this passage?
(a) Mankind and Scientific technology
(b) Benefits of Science
(c) Difference between Science and technology
(d) None of the above
Direction (Q. Nos. 46-50) : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the
correct option.
PASSAGE
The science-fiction writer does not say: This is what will happen. He says: This is what might possibly happen and if you
don’t like it, do something about it now, for tomorrow it may be too late. If the future is grim, he presents the warning, and
because of that warning it is just possible the future may not be as grim as it might be. It is the task of statemanship and
government to prevent disaster from overtaking a people. To do so is not as easy as in the time when change was slower
and the stakes lower. What is required today is a deeper imagination than ever before, a greater daring, a clearer vision.
Nor is it only the science-fiction writers who think this. The old comfortable days of ‘muddling through’ and of relying on
tradition vanished with the development of the nuclear bomb. Once and for all, that feat demonstrated to the world that the
dreamers were better prophets than all the ‘practical’ men who ever lived.
46. The warning given by science fiction writer tells us-
(a) what will happen
(b) what might possibly happen
(c) that the future is grim
(d) none of the above
47. How does his warning help us?
(a) future may not be as grim as it might be
(b) change will take place slowly
(c) we become hopeful
(d) none of the above
48. Why is the task of statesmanship not easy today?
(a) change is slower and stakes slower
(b) we require a deeper imagination and a greater daring
(c) statesmen and governments are corrupt
(d) none of the above
49. What ended with the development of the nuclear bomb?
(a) the world of dreamers
(b) slow pace of life
(c) greater daring and clearer vision
(d) none of the above
50. What can a science fiction writer be called?
(a) a dreamer (b) a practical man
(c) a pessimist (d) none of the above
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6. Page 6
UGTG/I
51. Replace the dots with a suitable world to make three new words
(a) ROCK (b) WIND (c) HOST (d) TEST
52. How many ∆s
are there in the diagram
(a) 6 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 14
53. There are five books A, B, C, D, E, C lies above D, E is below A, D is above A, B is below E. Which is the bottom
most book?
(a) E (b) B (c) A (d) C
54. Complete the following letter series :
A, D, H, M, S, ?
(a) Y (b) Z (c) B (d) C
55. The number of triangles in the following figure are
(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 14
56. The maximum number of squares in the following figure is
(a) 11 (b) 12 (c) 13 (d) 14
(. . . .)
SUPER
PIPE
MILL
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7. Page 7
UGTG/I
57. In a dice a, b, c and d are written on the adjacent faces, in a clock wise order and e and f at the top and bottom.
When c is at the top, what will be at the bottom?
(a) a (b) b (c) c (d) e
Direction (Q. Nos. 58-59) : In the questions, there is a series with one number missing as shown by X. This X is given
as one of the alternatives. Mark the correct alternative.
58. 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, X
(a) 61 (b) 58 (c) 50 (d) 72
59. 4, 9, 25, X, 169, 289, 361
(a) 49 (b) 64 (c) 89 (d) 91
Direction (Q. Nos. 60-62) : Choose the most appropriate answer from the choices given.
60. In a certain code language, ‘ROAD’ is written as ‘URDG’. How is ‘SWAN’ written in that code?
(a) UXDQ (b) VZCQ (c) VZCP (d) VZDQ
61. Consider the following pictures of a dice:
What is the number opposite ‘1’?
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) None of these
62. If each alphabet is assigned a sequential numerical value in terms of odd numbers on the basis of their positions in
the English alphabet, viz A = 1, B = 3, C = 5 and so on. What will be the value of the word ‘DESK’?
(a) 76 (b) 67 (c) 47 (d) 74
Direction (Q. Nos. 63-64) : Rearrange the jumbled letters and find the odd one out:-
63. (a) EALPP (b) ABNNAA (c) EANOGR (d) HARCI
64. (a) LINOVI (b) NUTA (c) TORREBH (d) STERIS
Direction (Q. Nos. 65-66) : Study the diagram given below to answer these questions
65. Uneducated, unemployed women in villages are represented by-
(a) G (b) E (c) D (d) B
66. Educated, unemployed women in villages are represented by-
(a) A (b) B (c) D (d) E
A
B
F
DEG
= Women in villages
= Unemployed Women
= Educated Women
e
a
d
6
23
6
42
5
46
1
24
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8. Page 8
UGTG/I
67. What number should replace the question mark in the given figure?
(a) 94 (b) 93 (c) 92 (d) 91
68. If ‘Driver’ = 12
‘Pedestrian’ = 20
‘Accident’ = 16
then ‘Car’ =
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 18
69. If STOP is coded in a secret message as RSNO, the FIRE should be coded as-
(a) EGQD (b) EPMD (c) EHQD (d) DNPE
70. Sharma’s favourite colours are blue and green, so it is not surprising that he has six blue socks and six green socks
in his sock drawer. Unfortunately they are hopelessly mixed up and one day in complete darkness, he has to grab
some socks to wear. How many socks does he have to take from the drawer to make sure he gets a matching pair-
either green or blue? (Assume that socks are not distinguishable by the feet on which they could be worn)
(a) 3 (b) 7 (c) 4 (d) none of these
————
71. In comparison to the volume of an atom what is the volume of a nucleus?
(a) 10--5
(b) 10--2
(c) 10--3
(d) 106
72. Who discovered Neutron?
(a) James Chadwick (b) Newton (c) Enrico Fermi (d) Darwin
73. An iron ball and a wooden ball of same radius are thrown from the same height in vaccum. What is the relation of
the time taken by both the balls in reaching ground?
(a) same (b) iron ball will take more time
(c) wooden ball will take more time (d) either of the ball can reach earlier
74. Deficiency of which Vitamin causes anaemia?
(a) B12
(b) B1
(c) B2
(d) D
75. For safe storage what is the moisture content of foodgrains?
(a) less than 14% (b) 16-18% (c) 20-24% (d) above 26%
76. Which gas is used to keep water cool in a refrigerator?
(a) Oxygen (b) Chlorine (c) Hydrogen (d) Amonia
77. Which of the following is an example of Chemical change?
(a) Burning of Candle (b) Formation of ice
(c) Burning of paper (d) Sugar dissolved in water
46 ?
73 64
100 37
55 82
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9. Page 9
UGTG/I
78. Which Vitamin is not found in an egg?
(a) A (b) C (c) D (d) B1
79. What should be the normal heart beat of a healthy human body?
(a) 50-55 (b) 60-65 (c) 75-80 (d) 70-75
80. Which of the following is water borne disease?
(a) T.B. (b) Small Pox (c) Malaria (d) Cholera
81. A long jumper runs faster before taking a leap in order to gain
(a) energy (b) power (c) force (d) momentum
82. Which of the following is not the basic unit of measurement?
(a) radian (b) kelvin (c) mole (d) candela
83. The second closest start to the sun is
(a) Epsilon Eridani (b) Bernard Star
(c) 61 Cygni (d) Kappa Pavonis
84. In which weather there is maximum humidity?
(a) Winter (b) Summer (c) Rainy Season (d) Autum
85. What is the relation between focal length of a spherical mirror and radius of its curvature?
(a) f = (b) f = 2r (c) f = r + 2 (d) f = r -- 2
86. When two identical resistors are connected in series across a battery, the power dissipated by them is 20W. If these
resistors are connected in parallel across the same battery, the total power dissipated will be
(a) 10W (b) 20W (c) 40W (d) 80W
87. When three 6-V batteries are connected in parallel, the output voltage of the combination is
(a) 6V (b) 2V (c) 18V (d) None of these
88. Which of the following is NOT the SI Base unit?
(a) kilogram (b) candela (c) hertz (d) kelvin
89. The radiant energy of the sun results from
(a) cosmic radiation (b) combustion (c) nuclear fission (d) nuclear fusion
90. In which of the following transitions will the wavelength be minimum?
(a) n = 5 to n = 4 (b) n = 4 to n = 3 (c) n = 3 to n = 2 (d) n = 2 to n = 1
91. The refractive index of water is 1.33. The speed of light in water is
(a) 1.33 × 108
m/s (b) 2.26 × 108
m/s (c) 2.00 × 108
m/s (d) 1.80 × 108
m/s
92. To convert a moving coil galvanometer into an ammeter one has to connect
(a) a low resistance in series (b) a low resistance in parallel
(c) a high resistance in series (d) a high resistance in parallel
93. Molar mass of an element is
(a) mass of one atom of the element (b) mass of 100 atoms of the element
(c) mass of 6 atoms of the element (d) mass of 6.02 × 1023
atoms of the element
r
2
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10. Page 10
UGTG/I
94. The reaction
CH3
CH = CH2
+ Br2
→ CH3
CHBr -- CH2
Br
is an example of
(a) addition reaction (b) dissociation
(c) double decomposition (d) hydrolysis
95. For the reaction
N2
(g) + 3H2
(g) → 2NH3
(g)
34g of ammonia is obtained by combining
(a) 28g of nitrogen and 6g of hydrogen (b) 6g of nitrogen and 28g of hydrogen
(c) 14g of nitrogen and 20g of hydrogen (d) 20g of nitrogen and 14g of hydrogen
96. Which of the following oxides is acidic?
(a) SiO2
(b) Al2
O3
(c) PbO2
(d) SnO2
97. Down the groups the metallic character of the s-- and p-- block elements
(a) decreases (b) increases
(c) remains constant (d) does not vary in a regular manner
98. In which of the following compounds carbon shows its tetrahedral character
(a) CO (b) CO2
(c) CaCO3
(d) CHCl3
99. Which is the odd one out?
A B C D
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
100. Which of the patterns completes the series
A B C D
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
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