1. SỞ GD - ĐT NINH BÌNH ĐỀ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 12 THPT
Lần thi thứ 2 - Năm học 2014 - 2015
Môn: Tiếng Anh
Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)
Đề thi gồm 5 phần, 8 trang
Điểm bài thi Họ và tên, chữ ký của giám khảo
Số phách
(Do Chủ tịch Hội
đồng chấm thi ghi)
Bằng số: ........................
Bằng chữ: ......................
Giám khảo 1: ...........................................
Giám khảo 2: ...........................................
(Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp trên đề thi này)
PART I: LISTENING. (3,0 /POINTS)
Thí sinh được nghe 2 lần mỗi bài. Nghe lần lượt 2 lần bài I, sau đó nghe 2 lần bài II,
sau đó nghe 2 lần bài III. Mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu.
I. Listen and answer the questions below. Write no more than three words and/ or a
number for each answer. (1.0 point)
1. Which animal first provided humans with milk?
……………………………………………………………………………………
2. When were cows first milked?
……………………………………………………………………………………
3.What has been found in Egyptian tombs?
……………………………………………………………………………………
4. Before 1800, who were responsible for making cheese?
……………………………………………………………………………………
5. When were milking machines invented?
……………………………………………………………………………………
II. Listen and complete the sentences below. Write no more than three words for each
answer. Write your answer in the numbered box. (1.0 point)
6. The first yoghurt was made in the desert in …………………..
7. The flavor of yoghurt is improved by the addition of …………………. and sugar.
8. Children need …………………… of milk a day.
9. Most milk flavoring contains a lot of …………………..
10. …………………. is sometimes used instead of milk from animals.
Your answers:
6. ………... 7. ……….. 8. ………… 9. ………… 10. ………
III. Listen and decide whether each of the statements is True (T) or False (F). Write
your answer in the numbered box (1,0 point).
11. The trip will last two weeks.
12. The weather is warm so students don’t need to bring thick sweater.
13. The students need to take a towel and a swimming costume if they plan to go swimming.
14. For the evening, the whole group will have a meal after dancing at the disco.
15. In the evening, the students should wear the clothes that make them feel comfortable in.
Your answers:
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
1
2. PART II: PHONETICS: Stress pattern. (1.0 point)
Identify the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other words in the
same group.
16. A. eruption B. proximity C. discretion D. obliteration
17. A. memorable B. success C. hundreds D. shattered
18. A. proceed B. modernize C. logic D. jealously
19. A. secretary B. intelligent C. necessary
D. comfortable
20. A. disappearance B. expectation C. intensity D. scientific
Your answers:
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
PART III: LEXICO-GRAMMAR. (6,0 POINTS)
I. Choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete each sentence. Write your answer in
the numbered box. (2,0 points)
21. She gets fifteen percent …………….. on every insurance policy she sells.
A. salary B. commission C. bonus D. pension
22. I worked all summer but I didn’t ……. enough to save any money.
A. earn B. win C. pay D. gain
23. ……… a minute! I can’t find my keys.
Keep on B. Hold on C. Go on D. Carry on
24. His parents died when he was very young so he was …… by his aunt.
grown up B. taken care C. taken after D. brought up
25. . ………we have finished the course, we shall start doing more revision work.
A. For now B. Ever since C. Now that D. By now
26. Peter: “ I’ve got to go, Betty. So long." Betty: ” So long, Peter. And __________”
A. be careful B. don’t hurry C. take care D. don’t take
27. Boy: “Would you say that English is a global language?” Girl: "__________ "
A. Yes, it has. B. I like it.
C. I don’t understand the difference. D. Oh, absolutely.
28. _______ my sisters and brothers, I’d like to thank for your warm reception.
A. Instead of B. On behalf of C. On account of D. In front of
29. Don’t be late for the interview, _____ people will think you are a disorganized person.
A. unless B. otherwise C. if not D. or so
30. John: “How lovely your house is!” Jack: “__________”
A. Thank you, it’s nice of you to say so B. I love it, too..
C. Can you say that again. D. Really? It is.
31. My friends have just moved to a new flat in a residential area on the _______ of Paris.
A. urban B. outside C. outskirts D. side
32. In his anxiety to make himself________, he spoke too loudly and too slowly.
A. understand B. understanding C. understood D. to understand
33. I was prepared to lend my brother some money but he turned ________ my offer.
A. back B. up C. out D. down
34. I ________ with the performances but I got flu the day before.
A. was to have helped B. helped C. was to help D. had helped
35. Henry: " __________ " John: "Nothing."
A. What do you do? B. What's new?
C. How are you? D. Are you a newcomer?
2
3. 36. He never lets anything ______ him and his weekend fishing trip.
A. come between B. come up C. come on D. come among
37. “You ______ have cooked so many dishes. There are only three of us for lunch.”
A. oughtn’t B. wouldn’t C. couldn’t D. needn’t
38. The sign “NO TRESPASSING” tells you ______.
A. not to approach B. not to smoke C. not to photograph D. not to enter
39. ________ wait for no man.
A. Tide and fire B. Time and tide C. Time and fire D. Tide and time
40. Is it necessary that I _____ here tomorrow?
A. am being B. were C.be D. would be
Your answers:
21. 22. 23. 24. 25.
26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
31. 32. 33. 34. 35.
36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
II. Each sentence below has ONE mistake corresponding A, B, C or D. Find out and
correct it. Write your answer in the numbered box. (2.0 points)
Example: Thirty hours a week are a heavy work schedule.
A B C D
Answer: B → is
41. The average cat sleeps sixteen hours for a day in short intervals called “cat naps”
A B C D
42. Had the committee members considered the alternatives more carefully , they would
A B
have realized that the second was better as the first .
C D
43. The island of Kauai has much streams, some of which have worn deep canyons into the rock.
A B C D
44. Unlikely gas sport balloons, hot air balloons do not have nets.
A B C D
45. Methane in wet lands comes from soil bacteria that consumes organic plant matter.
A B C D
46. Since the dawn of agriculture 9,000 years ago, only a few animal species had been
A B C D
domesticated.
47. The surface of Mars is very complex and consists of a mixture of flat deserts, craters,
A B C
volcanoes, and mountainous.
D
48. A farmer’s tractor is like a powerful horse as it plows field, pulls trailers and moves
A B C D
heavy loads.
49. Harvey seldom pays his bills on time, and his brother does, too.
A B C D
50. In just three months H.G. Wells wrote the famous classic The Time Machine for what
A B C
he won a Newberry Caldecott award.
D
Your answers:
3
4. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45.
46. 47. 48. 49. 50.
III. Give the correct form of each word in brackets to complete each of the sentences
below. Write your answer in the numbered box. (1,0 point)
51. Finally, the proposal of the students was ______________ yesterday. (ADMISSION)
52. Look at the doctor’s ______________carefully before you take these tablets.
(PRESCRIBE)
53. Excuse me, Sir. I know it’s ______________to call you up at two a.m. But our factory
is on fire. (CONVENIENCE)
54. I______________met an old friend last week. (EXPECT)
55. She was late as she ______________how much time she’d need. (ESTIMATE)
56. ______________ , Brenden enjoyed his first year at college thoroughly. (ACADEMY)
57. We certainly have some very______________students in our school. (ART)
58. His health was seriously affected because he had suffered from constant (SLEEP) _____.
59. The ______________ of those mountain villages is a great achievement of the
government. ( ELECTRIC)
60. ____________ energy sources such as wind and wave power are pollution-free. (NEW)
Your answers:
51. 52. 53. 54. 55.
56. 57. 58. 59. 60.
IV. Give the correct forms/tenses of the verbs in brackets. Write your answer in the
numbered box. (1,0 point)
61. I (try) __________________for ages to reach you. Where have you been ?
62. I didn’t see anyone, but I felt that I (watch) __________________.
63. It’s imperative that the wildlife program (broadcast) __________________ tomorrow.
64. It was our fault to keep Jane waiting so long. We (inform) _________________ her in
advance.
65. Would you be so kind as (switch off) __________________the light when leaving?
66. If only it (not, rain) ______________, then I would be able to plant the seedlings today.
67. I don’t think his article deserves (read) __________________.
68. The huge damage is now reported (cause) ______________by the recent violent
earthquake.
69. By the end of next year, sixty houses (build) ________________on that green field site.
70. For five years from 1980 to 1985, Tom (live) __________________ in Madrid.
Your answers:
61…………… 62…………… 63…………… 64…………… 65……………
66…………… 67…………… 68…………… 69…………… 70……………
PART IV: READING COMPREHENSION. (6,0 POINTS)
I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap.
Write your answer in the numbered box. (2,0 points)
These days in business, people have to face many challenging questions when designing and
implementing new projects in undeveloped areas of the countryside. One issue which has to
be faced is whether it is possible to introduce new technology without destroying the local
environment.
Economic (71) __________and environmental conservation are often seen as natural
enemies. It is unfortunate that in the past this has often been true, and it has been necessary
to choose between (72) __________the project or protecting the environment. However, by
taking environmental considerations (73) __________at an early stage in a project,
companies can significantly reduce any impacts on local plants and animals.
4
5. For example, in southern Africa, a company called CEL was asked to put up 410 km
of a power transmission line without disturbing the rare birds which inhabit that area. The
project was carried out with (74) __________disturbance last summer. What may surprise
many business people is the fact that this consideration for local wildlife did not in any way
(75) __________down the project. Indeed, the necessary advance planning (76)
__________with local knowledge and advanced technology, (77) __________that the
project was actually completed ahead of schedule. CEL was contracted to finish the job by
October and (78) __________to do so two months earlier.
CEL is one of those companies which is (79) __________ to the principle of
environmental conservation. Many other companies have yet to be (80) __________ of the
importance of balancing the needs of people with those of the environment. However, it
may be the only realistic way forward.
71. A. development B. progression C. rise D. increase
72. A. running B. dealing C. controlling D. leading
73. A. deeply B. gravely C. seriously D. severely
74. A. bare B. smallest C. least D. minimal
75. A. turn B. slow C. speed D. hold
76. A. tied B. combined C. added D. related
77. A. led B. caused C. resulted D. meant
78. A. managed B. succeeded C. achieved D. fulfilled
79. A. promised B. persuaded C. convicted D. committed
80. A. argued B. convinced C. urged D. impressed
Your answers
71…………… 72…………… 73…………… 74…………… 75……………
76…………… 77…………… 78…………… 79…………… 80……………
II.Read the passage and choose the best option A, B, C or D to answer the questions or
to complete each sentence. Write your answer in the numbered box. (2.0 points)
Large animals that inhabit the desert have evolved a number of adaptations for
reducing the effects of extreme heat. One adaptation is to be light in color, and to reflect
rather than absorb the Sun’s rays. Desert mammals also depart from the normal mammalian
practice of maintaining a constant body temperature. Instead of trying to keep down the
body temperature deep inside the body, which would involve the expenditure of water and
energy, desert mammals allow their temperatures to rise to what would normally be fever
height, and temperatures as high as 46 degrees Celsius have been measured in Grant’s
gazelles. The overheated body then cools down during the cold desert night, and indeed the
temperature may fall unusually low by dawn, as low as 34 degrees Celsius in the camel.
This is an advantage since the heat of the first few hours of daylight is absorbed in warming
up the body, and an excessive buildup of heat does not begin until well into the day.
Another strategy of large desert animals is to tolerate the loss of body water to a
point that would be fatal for non-adapted animals. The camel can lose up to 30 percent of its
body weight as water without harm to itself, whereas human beings die after losing only 12
to 13 percent of their body weight. An equally important adaptation is the ability to
replenish this water loss at one drink. Desert animals can drink prodigious volumes in a
short time, and camels have been known to imbibe over 100 liters in a few minutes. A very
dehydrated person, on the other hand, cannot drink enough water to rehydrate at one
session, because the human stomach is not sufficiently big and because a too rapid dilution
of the body fluids causes death from water intoxication. The tolerance of water loss is of
obvious advantage in the desert, as animals do not have to remain near a water hole but
can obtain food from grazing sparse and far-flung pastures. Desert-adapted mammals have
5
6. the further ability to feed normally when extremely dehydrated, it is a common experience
in people that appetite is lost even under conditions of moderate thirst.
81. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Weather variations in the desert. B. Adaptations of desert animals.
C. Diseased of desert animals. D. Human use of desert animals.
82. According to the passage, why is light coloring an advantage to large desert animals?
A. It helps them hide from predators. B. It does not absorb sunlight as much as dark colors.
C. It helps them see their young at night. D. It keeps them cool at night.
83. The word “maintaining” is closest in meaning to _________.
A. measuring B. inheriting C. preserving D. delaying
84. The author uses of Grant’s gazelle as an example of
A. an animal with a low average temperature
B. an animal that is not as well adapted as the camel
C. a desert animal that can withstand high body temperatures
D. a desert animal with a constant body temperature
85. When is the internal temperature of a large desert mammal lower?
A. Just before sunrise B. In the middle of the day
C. Just after sunset D. Just after drinking
86. The word “tolerate” is closest in meaning to _________.
A. endure B. replace C. compensate D. reduce
87. What causes water intoxication?
A. Drinking too much water very quickly. B. Drinking polluted water.
C. Bacteria in water. D. Lack of water.
88. Why does the author mention humans in the second paragraph?
A. To show how they use camels.
B. To contrast them to desert mammals.
C. To give instructions about desert survival.
D. To show how they have adapted to desert life.
89. The word “obtain” is closest in meaning to _________.
A. digest B. carry C. save D. get
90. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an adaptation of large desert animals?
A. Variation in body temperatures. B. Eating while dehydrated.
C. Drinking water quickly. D. Being active at night.
Your answers:
81. 82. 83. 84. 85.
86. 87. 88. 89. 90.
III. Read the passage and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. Write your
answer in the numbered box. (2,0 points)
Albert Einstein
Best known (91) _________ his Theory of Relativity, Albert Einstein has been
acknowledged (92) _________ one of the greatest scientists in human society. Born in
Germany in 1879, Einstein did (93) _________ in all his school subjects, with the (94)
_________of mathematics, which was his (95) _________ subject.
While (96) _________as a clerk in Switzerland, Einstein produced the Special
Theory of Relativity. This theory states that mass, length and time change depending on
(97) _________ a person looks at them. In 1915, Einstein published his General Theory of
Relativity. This new theory created a controversy (98) _________ many scientists did not
agree with him. In the end, simple experiments (99) _________ Einstein to be correct.
Einstein was (100) _________the Nobel Prize for his work in physics.
6
7. Your answers:
91. 92. 93. 94. 95.
96. 97. 98. 99. 100.
PART V. WRITING. (4,0 POINTS)
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as
the sentence printed before it. (1.0 point)
101.You can try to get Tim to lend you his car but you won’t succeed.
There’s no point …………………………………………………………………...........
102. People think Columbus found America before others.
America ...............................................................................................................................
103. Martin may not be very well but he still manages to enjoy life.
Martin’s poor............
104. Someone rang the alarm as soon as the burglars left the building.
No sooner.........
105. Whenever she went to Paris she bought a new dress.
She never ……………………………………………………………………………….
106. You feel tired now because you didn’t sleep very well last night.
Had ……………………………………………………………………………………..
107. Their wedding will be held in a lovely church.
The church …………………………………………………………………………….
108. If we can solve the problem soon, it will be better for all concerned.
The sooner.........
109. Our profits this year are higher than they have ever been.
Never ……………………………………………………………………..…………….
110. Shirley didn't begin to read until she was eight.
It wasn’t ………………………………………………………………………………..
II. Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meanings, using the words
given. Remember not to make any changes to the words given. (1.0 point)
111.When she sold the jewelry at such a low price, she was cheated (RIDE)
…………………………………………………………………………………
112. The two theories appear to be completely different. (COMMON)
…………………………………………………………………………………
113. The police arrived as the thieves were committing the crime. (RED-HANDED)
…………………………………………………………………………………
114. All of a sudden, Alice thought of a solution to the problem. (OCCURRED)
…………………………………………………………………………………
115. Nobody expected her to lose, but she did. (AGAINST)
…………………………………………………………………………………
III. Write a paragraph of about 150 words about the advantages of reading books among
students. (2.0 points)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
7
9. SỞ GD-ĐT NINH BÌNH HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 12
THPT
Kỳ thi thứ 2 - Năm học: 2014-2015
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
(Hướng dẫn chấm gồm 3 trang)
A. HƯỚNG DẪN CHUNG:
- Đề thi gồm 115 câu và bài viết luận:
+ Từ câu 1 đến câu 90: 18 điểm
+ Bài viết luận: 2 điểm
- Tổng điểm toàn bài: 20 điểm
B. ĐÁP ÁN:
PART ANSWERS MARK
PART I:
LISTENING.
(3,0 /POINTS)
I. Listen and answer the
questions below.(1.0 point)
1. sheep 0.2 p
2. 4.000 years ago 0.2 p
3. (some) old cheese 0.2 p
4. women 0.2 p
5. (in about) 1830 0.2 p
II. Listen and complete the
sentences below (1.0 point)
6. Africa 0.2 p
7. fruit 0.2 p
8. half a litre 0.2 p
9. sugar 0.2 p
10. Soya milk 0.2 p
III. Listen and decide
whether each of the
statements is True (T) or
False (F) (1.0 point)
11. F 0.2 p
12. F 0.2 p
13.T 0.2 p
14. F 0.2 p
15. T 0.2 p
PART II:
PHONETICS:
Stress pattern.
(1.0 point)
Identify the word whose
stress pattern is different
from that of the other words
in the same group. (1.0
point)
16. D 0.2 p
17. B 0.2 p
18. A 0.2 p
19. B 0.2 p
20. C 0.2 p
PART III:
LEXICO-
GRAMMAR.
(6,0 POINTS)
I. Choose the best option
A, B, C or D to complete
each sentence. Write your
answer in the numbered
box. (2,0 points)
21. B 0.1 p
22. A 0.1 p
23. B 0.1 p
24. D 0.1 p
25. C 0.1 p
26. C 0.1 p
27. D 0.1 p
28. B 0.1 p
29. B 0.1 p
30. A 0.1 p
31. C 0.1 p
32. C 0.1 p
33. D 0.1 p
34. A 0.1 p
9
10. 35. B 0.1 p
36. A 0.1 p
37. D 0.1 p
38. D 0.1 p
39. B 0.1 p
40. C 0.1 p
II. Each sentence below
has ONE mistake
corresponding A, B, C or
D. Find out and correct it
(2.0 points)
41. B -> a day 0.2 p
42. D -> than the first 0.2 p
43. A -> many 0.2 p
44. A -> Unlike 0.2 p
45. C -> consume 0.2 p
46. D -> have been 0.2 p
47. D ->mountains 0.2 p
48. C -> fields 0.2 p
49. D - > doesn’t, either 0.2 p
50. C -> which 0.2 p
III. Give the correct form
of each word in brackets to
complete each of the
sentences below. (1.0 point)
51. admitted 0.1 p
52.presciption 0.1 p
53. inconvenient 0.1 p
54. unexpectedly 0.1 p
55. had underestimated 0.1 p
56. academically 0.1 p
57. artistic 0.1 p
58. sleeplessness 0.1 p
59. electrification 0.1 p
60. renewable 0.1 p
IV. Give the correct
forms/tenses of the verbs in
brackets (1.0 point)
61. have been trying 0.1 p
62. was being watched 0.1 p
63. be broadcast 0.1 p
64. should have informed 0.1 p
65. to switch off 0.1 p
66.were not raining 0.1 p
67. reading 0.1 p
68. to have been caused 0.1 p
69. will have been built 0.1 p
70. lived 0.1 p
PART IV:
READING
COMPREHE
NSION. (6,0
POINTS)
I. Read the passage below
and decide which answer
(A, B, C or D) best fits each
gap. (2.0 points)
71. A 0.2 p
72. A 0.2 p
73. C 0.2 p
74. D 0.2 p
75. B 0.2 p
76. B 0.2 p
77. D 0.2 p
78. A 0.2 p
79. D 0.2 p
80. B 0.2 p
II. Read the passage and 81. B 0.2 p
10
11. choose the best option A,
B, C or D to answer the
questions or to complete
each sentence (2.0 points)
82. B 0.2 p
83. C 0.2 p
84. C 0.2 p
85. A 0.2 p
86. A 0.2 p
87. A 0.2 p
88. B 0.2 p
89. D 0.2 p
90. D 0.2 p
III. Read the passage and
fill in each blank with ONE
suitable word (2.0 points)
91. for 0.2 p
92. as 0.2 p
93. poorly 0.2 p
94. exception 0.2 p
95. favorite 0.2 p
96. working 0.2 p
97. how 0.2 p
98. because 0.2 p
99. proved 0.2 p
100. awarded 0.2 p
PART V.
WRITING.
(4,0 POINTS)
I. Finish each of the
following sentences in such
a way that it means exactly
the same as the sentence
printed before it. (1.0
point)
101. There’s no point in trying to
get Tim to lend you his car
0.1 p
102. America is thought to have
been found by Columbus before
others.
0.1 p
103. Martin’s poor health does
not stop/prevent him from
enjoying life.
0.1 p
104. No sooner had the burglars
left the building than someone
rang the alarm.
0.1 p
105. She never went to Paris
without buying a new dress.
0.1 p
106. Had you slept well last night
you wouldn’t feel tired now.
0.1 p
107. The church where their
wedding will be held is lovely.
0.1 p
108. The sooner we (can) solve
the problem, the better it will be
for all concerned.
0.1 p
109. Never have our profits been
so high as they are this year.
0.1 p
110. It wasn’t until she was eight
that she began to read/ reading.
0.1 p
II. Rewrite the following
sentences without changing
their meanings, using the
words given. Remember
not to make any changes to
111. When she sold the jewery at
such a low prise, she was taken
for a ride.
0.2 p
112. The two theories have (got)
nothing in common.
0.2 p
11
12. the words given. (1.0 point) 113. The police caught the thieves
red- handed.
0.2 p
114. All of a sudden, a solution to
the problem occurred to Alice
0.2 p
115. Against everybody’s
expectation, she lost.
0.2 p
III. Write a paragraph of
about 150 words. (2,0
points)
1. Organization:
- Well-structured paragraph:
+ 1 topic sentence
+ At least TWO supporting
sentences
+ At least ONE supporting
detail for each supporting
sentence
+ 1 concluding sentence
- Well-organized ideas with
coherence, cohesion and clarity
2. Content:
- Main ideas and details as
required
3. Language use:
- A variety of structures and
vocabulary
- Good use of grammar
0,5 p
1,0 p
0,5 p
Markers should discuss the suggested answers and the marking scale thoroughly
and add more answers possible before marking the papers.
12
13. PHẦN KÝ XÁC NHẬN:
TÊN FILE ĐỀ THI: A-02-HSG12PT-14-TR24
MÃ ĐỀ THI (DO SỞ GD&ĐT GHI):…………………………………………..
TỔNG SỐ TRANG (ĐỀ THI VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM) LÀ:12 TRANG.
NGƯỜI RA ĐỀ THI
Đinh Thị Tuyết
TỔ TRƯỞNG XÁC NHẬN CỦA BGH
13
