IMPORTANT SELECTED MODEL QUESTION FOR NEET 2018 2019 https://creativechemistrypost.blogspot.com/2018/12/important-selected-model-question-for.html

1. Mudassar Husain Creative Chemistry Post Page 1
IMPORTANT SELECTED MODEL QUESTION
FOR NEET
Q1.On heating one end of a piece of a metal, the
other end becomes hot because of
a)Resistance of the metal
b)Mobility of atoms in the metal
c)Energized electrons moving to the other end
d)Minor perturbation in the energy of atoms
Q2. A device that converts energy of combustion
of the fuels like hydrogen and methane, directly
into electrical energy is known as
(a)Electrolytic cell(b)Dynamo
(c)Ni-Cd cell (d) Fuel cell
Q3. Consider the following relations for emf of a
electrochemical cell
(i) Emf of cell =(Oxidation potential of anode) –
(Reduction potential of cathode)
(ii) Emf of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode)
+(Reduction potential of cathode)
(iii)emf of cell = (Reduction potential of
anode)+(Reduction potential of cathode)
(iv) emf of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode) –
(Oxidation potential of cathode)
Which of the above relation are correct?
(a) (ii) and (iv)
(b) (iii) and (i)
(c)(i) and (ii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
Q4. On electrolysis of dilute sulphuric acid
using platinum electrodes, the product obtained
at the anode will be
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Oxygen
(c)Hydrogen sulphide
(D)Sulphur dioxide
Q5. During the electrolysis of molten sodium
chloride, the time required to produce
0.10 mol of chlorine gas using a current of 3
amperes is
a)220 minumtes(b)330 monutes
(c)55 minutes(d) 110 minutes
Q6. An electric current is passed through silver
nitrate solution using silvern electrodes. 10.79 g
of silver was found to be deposited on the
cathode if the same amount of sulphate solution
using copper electrodes, the weight of copper
deposited onthe cathode is
(a)6.4g (b) 2.3 g
(c)12.8 g (d) 3.2g
Q7. An increase in equilvalent conductance of a
strong electrolyte with dilution is mainly due to:
(a) Increase in ionic mobility of ions
(b) 100 % ionization of electrolyte at normal
dilution
(c) Increase in both i.e. number of ions and ionic
mobility of ions
(d) Increase in number of ions
Q8. The ionic conductance of Ba2+
and Cl-
are
respectively 127 and 76 ohm-1 cm2 at infinite
dilution. The equivalent conductance (in ohm-1
cm2
) of BaCl2 at infinite dilution will be :
(a)139.5 (b) 203
(c)279 (d) 101.5
Q9. At 250
C molar conductance of 0.1 molar
aqueous solution of ammonium hydroxide is
9.54 ohm-1
cm2
mol-1
and at infinite dilution its
molar conductance is 238 ohm-1
cm2
mol-1
.The
degree or ionization of ammonium hydroxide at
the same concentration an temperature is
(a) 20.800% (b) 4.008%

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(c)40.800% (d) 2.080%
Q10.How enzymes increases the rate of
reactions
(a) By lowering activation energy
(b) By increasing activation energy
(c) By changing equilibrium constant
(d) By forming enzyme substrate complex
Q11 . A chemical reaction is catalyzed by a
catalyst X.Hence X
(a) Reduces enthalpy of the reaction
(b) Decreases rate constant of the reaction
(c) Increases activation energy of the reaction
(d) Does not affect equilibrium constant of the
reaction
Q12. In a reaction, A +B -Product,
rate is doubled when the concentration of B is
doubled, and rate increases by a factor of 8
when the concentration of both the reactants (A
and B) are doubled, rate law for the reaction can
be written as:
(a) Rate = K [A] [B]2
(b) Rate = k[A]2[B]2
(c)Rate =k [A]2[B]2
(d) Rate =k[A]2[B]
Q13. For a reaction between A and B the order
with respect to A is 2 and the order with respect
to B is 3. The concentrations of both A and B are
doubled, the rate will increase by a factor of
(a) 10 (b) 12
(c)16 (d) 32
Q14. The rate of a first order reaction is 0.04
mol-1
s-1
at 10 seconds and 0.03 mol-1
s-1
of 20
seconds after initiation of the reaction. The half-
life period of the reaction is
(a) 24.1 s (b) 34.1s
(c)44.1s (d) 54.1s
Q15. A first order reaction has a specific
reaction rate of 10-2
sec-1
. How much time will
it take for 20g of the reactant to reduce to 5g ?
(a) 138.6 sec(b) 346.5sec
(c)693.0sec (d) 238.6 sec
Q16. When a few typical solutes are separated
by a particular selective memberane such as
protein particles, blood corpuscles, this process
is called
(a) Transpiration (b) Endosmosis
(c)Dialysis (d) Diffusion
Q17. Which one of the following method is
commonly used method for destruction of
colloid?
(a) Dialysis
(b)Condensation
(c)Filteration by animal membrane
(d) By adding electrolyte
Q18.The catalytic activity of transitions metals
and their compounds is describe mainly due to
(a) Their magnetic behavior
(b) Their unfilled d-orbitals
(c)Their ability to adopt variable oxidation states
(d) Their chemical reactivity
Q19. Fog is colloidal solution of
(a) Liquid in gas
(b) Gas is liquid
(c) Solid in gas
(d) Gas in gas
Q20. For adsorption of a gas on a solid, the plot
of log x/m versus log P is linear with slope equal
to (n being whole number )
(a) K (b) log k
(c)n (d) 1/n

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Q21. The Langmuir adsorption isotherm is
deduced using the assumption
(a) The adsorption sites are equivalent in their
ability to adsorb the particles
(b) The heat of adsorption varies with coverage
(c) The adsorbed molecules interact with each
other
(d) The adsorption takes place in multilayers
Q22. Method used for obtaining highly pure
silicon used as a semiconductor material, is
(a)Oxidation
(b)Electrochemical
(c)Crystallization
(d) Zone refining
Q23. Which one of the following is a mineral of
iron ?
(a) Malachite (b) Cassiterite
(b) Pyrolusite (d) Magnetite
Q24. Roasting of sulphides gives the gas X as a
byproduct. This is a colourless gas with choking
smell of brunt sulphur and causes great damage
to respiratory organs as a result of acid rain. Its
aqueous solution is acidic, acts as a reducing
agent and its acid has never been isolated.
The gas X is
(a) CO2 (b) SO3
(c)H2S (d) SO2
Q25. Hypo is used in photography to
(a) Reduce AgBr grains to metallic silver
(b) Convert metallic silver to salt
(c) Remove undercomposed silver bromide as a
soluble complex
(d) Remove reduced silver
Q26. Which of the following metal evolves
hydrogen on reacting with cold dilute
HNO3?
(a)Mg (b) AI
(c)Fe (d) Cu
Q27. Which of the following statement is not
correct for nitrogen?
(a) Its electronegativity is very high
(b) D-orbitals are available for bonding
(c) It is typical non-metal
(d) Its molecular size is small
Q28. Basicity of ortho phosphoric acid is
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c)4 (d) 5
Q29. Strongest hydrogen bonding is shown by
(a) Water (b) ammonia
(c)hydrogen fluoride
(d) hydrogen sulphide.
Q30.Elements of which of the following groups
will form anions most readily?
(a) Oxygen family
(b) Nitrogen family
(c)Halogens
(d) Alkali metals
Q31. A solution of potassium bromide is treated
with each of the following. Which onewould
liberate bromine?
(a) Hydrogen iodide
(b) Sulphur dioxide
(c)Chlorine
(d) Iodine
Q32. Which of the following
fluorides does not exist?
(a) NF5 (b) PF5
(c)AsF5 (d) SbF5.
Q33. Brown ring test is used to detect
(a) Iodine (b) Nitrate
(c)Iron (d) Bromide

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Q34. The acid which has a peroxy linkage is
(a) Sulphuric acid
(b) Pyrosulphuric acid
(c) Dithionic acid
(d) Caro’s acid
Q35. Repeated use of which one of the following
fertilizers would increase the acidity of the soil?
(a) Urea
(b) Superphosphate of lime
(c)Ammonium sulphate
(d) potassium nitrate
Q36. During its reactions, ozone
(a) Can only combine with hydrogen atoms
(b) Accepts electrons
(c) Loses electrons
(d) Shows the role of electrons to be irrelevant
Q37.which one of the following statement is not
true?
(a) Among halide ions, iodide is the most
powerful reducing agent
(b) Fluoride is the only halogen that does not
show a variable oxidation state.
c) HOCl is a stronger acid than HOBr.
(d) HF is a stronger acid than HCI
Q38. Which one of the following is responsible
for depletion of the ozone layer in the upper
strata of the atmosphere?
(a)Polyhalogens(b)Ferrocene
(c)Fullerenes (d) Freons
Q39. Among K, Ca, Fe and Zn, the element
which can form more than one binary
compound with chlorine is
(a) Fe (b) Zn
(c)K (d) Ca
Q40. In which of the following molecules are all
the bonds are not equal?
(a) NF3 (b) CIF3
(c)BF3 (d) AIF3
Q41. Among the followingwhich is the strongest
oxidizing agent?
(a) Br2 (b) I2
(c)Cl2 (d) F2
Q42. Which is the strongest acid in the
following?
(a) HClO3 (b) HClO4
(c)H2SO3 (d) H2SO4
Q43. Which of the following is a polar molecule?
(a) SF4 (b) SiF4
(c)XeF4 (d) BF3
Q44. PCl3 is reacts with water to form
(a) PH3 (b) H3PO3,HCl
(c)POCl3 (d) H3PO4
Q45.Which one of the following substance is
used in the laboratory for fast drying of neutral
gases?
(a) Phosphorus pentoxide
(b) Active charcoal
(c)Anhydrous calcium chloride
(d) Na3PO4
Q46. H3PO2 is the molecular formula of an acid
of phosphorus. Its name and basicity
resepectively are
(a)Phosphorus acid and two
(b)Hypophosphorus acid and two
(c)Hypophosphorous acid and one
(d)Hypophosphoric acid and two
Q47.A one litre flask is full of brown bromine
vapour. The intensity of brown colour of vapour
will not decrease appreciably on adding will not
decrease appreciably on adding to the flask
some
(a) Pieces of marble
(b) animal charcoal powder

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(c)carbon tetrachloride
(d) carbon disulphide
Q48. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) Silicon exhibits 4 coordination number in its
compound.
(b) Bond energy of F2 is less than Cl2
(c) Mn(III) oxidation state is more stable than
Mn(II) in aqueous state.
(d) Elements of 15th group shows only + 3 and
+5 oxidation states.
Q49.Which is the correct statement for the
given acids?
(a)Phosphinic acid is a diprotic acid while
phosphonic acid is a monoprotic acid
(b)Phosphinic acid is a monoprotic acid while
phosphonic acid is a diprotic acid
(c)Both are triprotic acids
(d)Both are diprotic acids
Q50. It is possible to obtain oxygen from air by
fractional distillation because
(a)Oxygen is in a different group of the periodic
table from nitrogen
(b)Oxygen is more reactive than nitrogen
(c)Oxygen has higher b.p than nitrogen
(d)Oxygen has a lower density than nitrogen.
Q51.Oxidation of thiosulphate by iodide gives.
(a)Tetrahionate ion
(b)Sulphide ion
(c)Sulphate ion
(d)Sulphite ion
Q52. Which of the following does not give
oxygen on heating?
(a)Zn(CIO3)2 (b)K2Cr2O7
(C)(NH4)2Cr2O7 (d) KCIO3
Q53. Among the following the correct order of
acidity is
(a)HCIO3 < HCIO4 <HCIO2 <HCIO
(b)HCIO < HCIO2 <HCIO3 <HCIO4
(c)HCIO2 <HCIO <HCIO3 <HCIO4
(d)HCIO4 <HCIO2 <HCIO <HCIO2
Q54. Which of the following statement
concerning lanthanide elements is false?
(a)All lanthanides are highly dense metals
(b)More characteristic oxidation state of
lanthanide elements is +3
(c)Lanthanides are separated from one another
by ion exchange method
(d)Ionic radii of trivalent lanthanides steadily
increase with increase in the atomic number.
Q55. To protect iron against corrosion, the most
durable metal plating on it, is
(a)Copper plating
(b)Zinc plating
(c)Nickel plating
(d)Tin plating
Q56.which one of the following elements shows
maximum number of different oxidation states
in its compounds?
(a)Eu (b) La
(c)Gd (d) Am
Q57.Which of the following statement about the
interstitial compounds is incorrect?
(a)They are chemically reactive.
(b)They are much harder then the pure metal.
(c)They have higher melting points than the
pure metal.
d)They retain metallic conductivity.
Q58.The reason for greater range of oxidation
states in actinoids is attributed to:
(a)Actinoid contraction
(b)5f,6d and 7s levels having comparable energies
(c)4f and 5d levels being close in energies
(d)The radioactive nature of actinoids

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Q59.Identify the following statement among the
following
(a)Lanthanoid contraction is the accumulation of
successive shrinkages.
(b)As a result of lanthanoid contraction, the
properties of 4d series of the transition elements
have no similarties with the 5d series of elements.
(c)Shielding power of 4f electrons is quite weak.
(d)There is a decrease in the radii of the atoms or
ions as one proceeds from La to Lu.
Q60. Which one of the following statements is
correct when SO2 is passed through acidified
K2Cr2O7 solution?
(a)The solution turns blue
(b)The solution is decolourized
(c)SO2 is reduced
(d)Green Cr2(SO4)3 is formed
Q61. More number of oxidation states are
exhibited by the actinoids than by the
lanthanoids. The main reason for this is
(a)More active nature of the actinoids
(b)More energy difference between 5f and 6d
orbitals than that between 4f and 5d orbitals
(c)Lesser energy difference between 5f and 6d
orbitals than that between 4f and 5d orbitals
(d)Greater metallic character of the lanthanoids
than that of the corresponding actinoids
Q62.Sc (Z=21) is a transition element but Zn
(Z=30) is not because
(a)Both Sc and Zn do not exhibit variable
oxidation states
(b)Both Sc3+
and Zn2+
ions are colourless and
form white compounds
(c)In case of Sc, 3d orbitals are partially filled
but in Zn these are completely filled
(d)Last electron is assumed to be added to 4s
level in case of Zn
Q63. Industrial preparation of chloroform
employs acetone and
(a)Phosgene
(b) Calcium hypochlorite
(c)Chlorine gas
(d) Sodium chloride
Q64. An organic compound A(C4H9Cl) on
reaction with Na/diethyl ether gives a
hydrocarbon which on monichlorination gives
only one chloro derivative, then A is
(a)Tert –butyl chlorine
(b) sec-butyl chloride
(c)isobutyl chloride
(d) n-butyl chloridE
Q65. Which of the following is correct?
(a)Cycloheptane is an
aromatic compound
(b)Diastase is an enzyme
(c)Acetophenone is an ether
(d)All of the above
Q67. Number of isomeric alcohols of molecular
formula C6H10O which give positive
iodoform test is
(a)Three (b) four
(c)five (d) two
Q68. What is formed when a primary alcohol
undergoes catalytic dehydrogenation?
(a) Aldehyde (b) Ketone
(c)Alkene (d) Acid
Q69. Ethanol and dimethyl ether form a part of
functional isomers. The boiling point of ethanol
is higher than that of dimethyl ether, due to the
presence of
(a)H- bonding in ethanol
(b)H- bonding in dimethyl ether

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(c)CH3 group in ethanol
(d)CH3 group in dimethyl ether
Q70.Aldehydes and ketones will not form
crystalline derivatives with
(a)Sodium bisulphate
(b)phenylhydrazine
(c)semicarbazide hydrochloride
(d) Dihydrogen sodium phosphate.