Renewable energy resources mcqs quiz unit(1 5)

Renewable Energy Resources MCQS QUIZ Unit - I
1. The disadvantage of renewable energy:-
a. Pollution is high
b. Available only in a few places
c. Running cost is high
d. Unreliable supply
Correct option is D
2. A Solar cell is an electrical device that converts the energy of light directly into
electricity by which effect:-
a. Physical effect
b. Chemical effect
c. Photovoltaic effect
d. Photosynthesis effect
Correct option is C
3. The main composition of biogas is:-
a. Hydrogen
b. Methane
c. Nitrogen
d. Carbon dioxide
Correct option is B
4. Ministry which is mainly responsible for research and development in renewable
energy sources such as solar power, wind power, small hydro, biogas etc.:-
a. Human Resource Development
b. Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
c. Health and Family Welfare
d. Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
Correct option is D
5. India has a large amount of installed grid interactive renewable power capacity:-
a. Small Hydro power
b. Solar power
c. Wind power
d. Biogas power
Correct option is C
6. World's first 100 percent solar powered international airport:-
a. Mumbai, Maharashtra
b. Cohin, Kerla
c. Chennai, Tamilnadu
d. Hyderabad, Telangana
Correct option is B
7. Which of the following is not under the Ministry of New and Renewable
Energy(MNRE):-

a. Large hydro power energy
b. Wind energy
c. Solar energy
d. Tidal energy
Correct option is A
8. Largest Wind Farm in India is located at:-
a. Chakala Wind Farm, Maharashtra
b. Jaisalmer Wind Park, Rajasthan
c. Vaspet Wind Farm, Maharashtra
d. Muppandal Wind Farm, Tamil Nadu
Correct option is B
9. Conventional energy sources may also called as:-
a. Commercial energy sources
b. Non renewable energy sources
c. Both
d. None of these
Correct option is C
10. Coal energy is mainly composed of:-
a. Methane
b. Carbon and hydrocarbons
c. Nitrogen
d. Propane
Correct option is B
11. Coal produces ________________ which is the cause of acid rain.
a. Carbon mono-oxide
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Sulphar dioxide
d. None of these
Correct option is C
12. Natural gas is mainly composed of:-
a. Carbon and hydrocarbons
b. Methane with small amount of propane and ethane
c. Nitrogen
d. Hydrogen
Correct option is B
13. Solar energy can be used as:-
a. By direct conversion to a fuel by photosynthesis

b. By conversion to electricity via thermo-electric power system
c. By direct conversion to electricity by photovoltaic
d. All of these.
Correct option is D
14. The sun releases the enormous amount of energy due to continuous _________
reaction taking place inside the sun.
a. Fission
b. Fusion
c. Both
d. None of these
Correct option is B
15. The sun sends out the energy in the form of radiations at the rate of _________.
However, the energy intercepted by the earth is about ______.
a. 3.7x10^(20) MW, 1.85x10^(11) MW
b. 3.7x10^(10) MW, 1.85x10^(1) MW
c. 3.7x10^(30) MW, 1.85x10^(111) MW
d. None of these
Correct option is A
16. Which energy is developed by the gravitational pull of the sun and the moon
(A) Wind energy
(B) Tidal energy
(C) Geothermal energy
(D) Solar energy
Answer
Correct option is B
17. Full form of OTEC.
(A) Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion
(B) Ocean Temperature Energy Conversion
(C) Outer Temperature Energy Conversion
(D) None of these
Answer
Correct option is A
18. The motion of the sea surface in the form of wind waves forms a source of energy
called as ________.
(A) Wind energy
(B) Wave energy
(C) Tidal energy
(D) None of these
Answer
Correct option is B

19. There is an __________ in the temperature of the earth with increasing depth below the
surface.
(A) Decrease
(B) Increase
(C) Both
(D) Not fixed
Answer
Correct option is B
20. In the steam waste ______, ______ air pollutant gases are present.
(A) H2S
(B) NH3
(C) Both
(D) None of these
Answer
Correct option is C
21. Ministry of Non Conventional Energy Sources (MNES) renamed as ministry of New
and Renewable Energy (MNRE) in _______.
(A) 1981
(B) 1982
(C) 1992
(D) 2006
Answer
Correct option is D
22. The Jawaharlal Nehru national solar mission was launched on the ___________.
(A) 11 January, 2010
(B) 11 January, 2002
(C) 11 January, 2006
(D) 11 January, 2012
Answer
Correct option is A
23. Materials may used for solar cell.
(A) CuInSe2
(B) CaS, GaAs, Cu2S
(C) CdTe, ZnTe
(D) All of these
Answer
Correct option is D
24. The choice of materials for solar cell depends on the _________.
(A) Cost
(B) Band energy gap
(C) Efficiency
(D) All of these
Answer
Correct option is D

25. Photons of quantum energy ________ cannot contribute to photoelectric current
production.
(A) hv>Eg
(B) hv=Eg
(C) hv<Eg
(D) None of these
Answer
Correct option is C
26. Cell quantity is maximum when the value of 'fill factor' approaches to ________.
(A) Greater than unity
(B) Equal to unity
(C) Lesser than unity
(D) None of these
Answer
Correct option is B
27. Maximum efficiency solar cell types in latest_______.
(A) Multi-junction concentrator solar cells
(B) Polycrystalline photovoltaic or thin-film solar cells
(C) Monocrystalline silicon solar cells
(D) Amorphous silicon solar cells
Answer
Correct option is A
28. Full form of MPPT.
(A) Minimum Power Transfer Theorem
(B) Maximum Power Transfer Theorem
(C) Maximum Power Transfer Transistion
(D) None of these
Answer
Correct option is B
29. The capacity of battery is expressed in _______.
(A) Watts
(B) Ampere-hours
(C) Ampere-watts
(D) Ampere-volts
Answer
Correct option is B
30. The applications of photovoltaic systems are_______.
(A) Solar street light
(B) Water pumping system
(C) Solar vehicles
(D) All of these
Answer
Correct option is D

Solar Energy – Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) with Answers ROE086:
RENEWABLE ENERGY RESOURCES UNIT: 2 MCQS
1-Direct Solar energy is used for
(A) Water heating
(B) Distillation
(C) Drying
(D) All of the above
2-The power from the sun intercepted by the earth is approximately
(A) 1.8 x 108 MW
(B) 1.8 x 1011 MW
(C) 1.8 x 1014 MW
(D) 1.8 x 1017 MW
3-The following is indirect method of Solar energy utilization
(A) Wind energy
(B) Biomass energy
(C) Wave energy
4-A liquid flat plate collector is usually held tilted in a fixed position, facing _____ if
located in the northern hemisphere.
(A) North
(B) South
(C) East
(D) West
5-The collection efficiency of Flat plate collector can be improved by
(A) putting a selective coating on the plate
(B) evacuating the space above the absorber plate
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
6-The efficiency of various types of collectors ______ with _______ temperature.

(A) increases, decreasing
(B) decreases, increasing
(C) remains same, increasing
(D) depends upon type of collector
7-Maximum efficiency is obtained in
(A) Flat plate collector
(B) Evacuated tube collector
(C) Line focussing collector
(D) Paraboloid dish collector+
8-The following type of energy is stored as latent heat
(A) Thermal energy
(B) Chemical energy
(C) Electrical energy
(D) Mechanical energy
9-Which of the following type of collector is used for low temperature systems?
(A) Flat plate collector
(B) Line focussing parabolic collector
(C) Paraboloid dish collector
10-In the paraboloid dish concept, the concentrator tracks the sun by rotating
about
(A) One axes
(B) Two axes
(C) Three axes
11-The sun subtends an angle of _____ minutes at the earth’s surface.
(A) 22
(B) 32

(C) 42
(D) 52
12-The value of Solar Constant is
(A) 1347 W/m2
(B) 1357 W/m2
(C) 1367 W/m2
(D) 1377 W/m2
13-The extra terrestrial radiation flux varies by ____ % over a year.
(A) ± 1.1
(B) ± 2.2
(C) ± 3.3
(D) ± 4.4
14-The following is (are) laws of black body radiation.
(A) Plank’s law
(B) Stefan-Boltzmann law
(C) both (A) and (B)
15-Absorption of Solar radiations at earth’s surface occur due to presence of
(A) Ozone
(B) Water vapours
(C) Carbon di-oxide
16-Global radiation =
(A) Direct radiation – Diffuse Radiation
(B) Direct radiation + Diffuse Radiation
(C) Direct radiation / Diffuse Radiation
(D) Diffuse Radiation / Direct radiatio

17-The zenith angle is the angle made by the sun’s rays with the ____ to a ______
surface.
(A) normal, horizontal
(B) tangent, horizontal
(C) normal, vertical
(D) tangent, vertical
18-Solar radiation flux is usually measured with the help of a
(A) Anemometer
(B) Pyranometer
(C) Sunshine recorder
19-Beam radiations are measured with
(A) Anemometer
(B) Pyrheliometer
(C) Sunshine recorder
20-The angle made by the plane surface with the horizontal is known as
(A) Latitude
(B) Slope
(C) Surface azimuth angle
(D) Declination
21-The angle made in the horizontal plane between the horizontal line due south
and the projection of the normal to the surface on the horizontal plane is
(A) Hour angle
(B) Declination
(C) Surface azimuth angle
(D) Solar altitude angle
22-Surface azimuth angle varies from
(A) 0 to 90°

(B) -90 to 90°
(C) 0 to 180°
(D) -180° to 180°
23-The hour angle is equivalent to
(A) 10° per hour
(B) 15° per hour
(C) 20° per hour
(D) 25° per hour
24-The complement of zenith angle is
(A) Solar altitude angle
(B) Surface azimuth angle
(C) Solar azimuth angle
(D) Slope
25-The correction has a magnitude of ___ minutes for every degree difference in
longitude.
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
26-The global radiation reaching a horizontal surface on the earth is given by
(A) Hourly beam radiation + Hourly diffuse radiation
(B) Hourly beam radiation – Hourly diffuse radiation
(C) Hourly beam radiation / Hourly diffuse radiation
(D) Hourly diffuse radiation / Hourly beam radiation
27-The ratio of the beam radiation flux falling on a tilted surface to that falling on
a horizontal surface is called the
(A) Radiation shape factor
(B) Tilt factor
(C) Slope (D) None of the above

Geothermal Energy Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) with Answers ROE086:
RENEWABLE ENERGY RESOURCES UNIT: 3 MCQS
17 August 2020
14:11
1-Geothermal energy is the thermal energy present
(A) On the surface of the earth
(B) In the interior of the earth
(C) On the surface of the ocean
2-The following is (are) the visible sign(s) of the large amount of heat lying in the
earth’s interior.
(A) Volcanoes
(B) Geysers
(C) Hot springs
3-The centre of earth is estimated to have a high temperature of about
(A) 1,000 K
(B) 4,000 K
(C) 6,000 K
(D) 10,000 K
4-The molten rock within the earth is
(A) Igneous
(B) Magma
(C) Sedimentary
(D) Metamorphic
5-The following is (are) type(s) of Geothermal resource
(A) Hydrothermal
(B) Hot dry rock
(C) Geo pressurised (D) All of the above

6-When the water is ejected from earth’s interior in the form of hot water, it is
called
(A) Geyser
(B) Hot springs
(C) Both (A) and (B)
7-Water boils underground in a hydrothermal when it has pressure of about ____
atm and temperature of about ____ °C.
(A) 3, 100
(B) 5, 120
(C) 6, 140
(D) 7, 165
8-In dry steam hydrothermal plant, we use
(A) Carnot cycle
(B) Brayton cycle
(C) Rankine Cycle
9-In which of the following type(s) of plant(s) refrigerant is used as working
medium
(A) Vapour dominated plant
(B) Liquid dominated high temperature plant
(C) Liquid dominated low temperature plant
10-The following plant runs on binary cycle
(A) Vapour dominated plant
(B) Liquid dominated high temperature plant
(C) Liquid dominated low temperature plant
11-The efficiency of geothermal plant is about

(A) 5%
(B) 15%
(C) 25%
(D) 35%
12-Hydrothermal fluids are _____ in nature.
(A) Corrosive
(B) Abrasive
1. The geothermal energy is the ________ from the earth.
a) Heat
b) Light
c) Photons
d) Protons
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The geothermal energy means the heat from the earth. The name
geothermal itself has meaning. The word geo means the earth and thermal means heat.
2. Resources of geothermal energy range from the shallow ground to hot water.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Resources of the geothermal energy range from the shallow ground to hot
water and hot rock found few miles beneath the earth’s surface and deeper extremely
high temperature molten rock called magma.
3. The first geothermal electricity was produced in Italy in ________
a) 1903
b) 1901
c) 1902
d) 1904
View Answer
Answer: d

Explanation: The first geothermal electricity was produced in Italy in1904. The
geothermal energy is also used to produce electricity.
4. How much deep the earth should be drilled for reservoirs?
a) 1Km
b) 1.5Km
c) 1.6Km
d) 1.7km
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The earth is drilled up to 1.6km deep mostly. Some times more than that
under ground reservoirs is to tap stream and very hot water.
5. The hot water from the ground is used to ________
a) Turn turbines
b) Heat water
c) Heat turbines
d) Heat machinery
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The hot water from the ground is used to turn turbines. The turbines drive
electricity generators. Thus the electricity is produced.
6. How many types of geothermal power plants are there?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 5
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: There are three types of geothermal power plants. They are dry steam
geothermal power plant, flash geothermal power plant and binary geothermal power
plant.
7. Dry steam geothermal energy generator takes steam out of __________ in the ground.
a) Fractures
b) Rocks
c) Magma
d) Water
View Answer
Answer: a

Explanation: Dry steam geothermal energy generators takes steam out of fractures in
the ground. It is used to turn turbines directly and produces the electricity.
8. Flash geothermal power plants turns the high pressure hot water into ___________
a) Low pressure hot water
b) Low pressure cool water
c) High pressure hot water
d) High pressure hot water
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In flash geothermal power plants takes the high pressure hot water from
the ground and turns it into the low pressure cool water. The steam that is produced is
used to drive the turbine.
9. Binary geothermal power plants, the hot water is passed by a secondary fluid with
less boiling point than ____________
a) Water
b) 0oC
c) 50oC
d) 100oC
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Binary geothermal power plants, the hot water is taken from the ground
and the secondary fluid is passed with much lees boiling point than that of the water
taken from the ground.
10. Most of the future geothermal power plants will be of ____________ type.
a) Dry stream geothermal plants
b) Flash geothermal plants
c) Binary geothermal plants
d) Neither dry stream nor flash
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Most of the future geothermal power plants will be of binary type. It uses
the secondary fuel having lees boiling point than water and very efficient method.
11. Unlike other power plants, in geothermal power plants, no __________ is burned.
a) Kerosene
b) Petrol
c) Bio gas
d) Fossil fuel
View Answer Answer: d

Explanation: Unlike other power plants, in geothermal power plants no fossil fuel is
burned. So, there is no emission of CO2 and other gases and conversion.
12. The hot water is sent into the ________
a) Pipe
b) Vapour
c) Valve
d) Heat exchanger
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The hot water is sent into the heat exchanger. It turns the hot water into
vapour. The hot water is taken into the hot rocks, ocean surface and ocean thermal.
13. The __________ is used to turn the power into AC.
a) Turbine
b) Heat exchanger
c) Synchronous generator
d) Valve
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The synchronous generator is used to turn the direct current power into
the alternating current. There is a speed control of vapour in between the valve and
synchronous generator.
14. The cooling water is again sent into __________
a) Valve
b) Heat exchanger
c) Turbine
d) Condenser
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The cooling water is again sent into the condenser. So, that water can be
used again through the pump into heat exchanger.
15. From how many ways we can take the geothermal energy?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: c

Explanation: The geothermal energy takes the three types of sources. They are hot
rocks, ocean surface and ocean thermal are the three main sources of geothermal
energy.
Renewable Energy Resources
Unit - IV
1. Thermocouple is a ______________
(A) Tertiary transducer
(B) Secondary transducer
(C) Primary transducer
Answer
Correct option is C
2. Operation of thermocouple is based on _______________
(A) Peltier effect
(B) Seebeck effect
(C) Thomson effect
(D) All of the mentioned
Answer
Correct option is D
3. ________ describes current flow between two junctions formed by two different metals.
(A) Peltier effect
(B) Thomson effect
(C) Seebeck effect
(D) None of the mentioned
Answer
Correct option is A
4. In closed circuit, if the current I flows through a resistance R, the heat generated by
the resistance is equal to I2R. It is known as __________
(A) Peltier effect
(B) Thomson effect
(C) Seebeck effect
(D) Joule effect
Answer
Correct option is D
5. Amount of heat liberated or absorbed when 1A current passes is called ____________
(A) Peltier coefficient
(B) Thomson coefficient
(C) Seebeck coefficient
(D) Joule coefficient
Answer
Correct option is A
6. Total seebeck effect can be found as _____________
(A) Total Peltier effect

(B) Total Thomson effect
(C) Partly peltier and thomson effect
(D) None of the mentioned
Answer
Correct option is C
7. Peltier effect is reverse of seebeck effect.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer
Correct option is A
8. Which semiconductor is(are) used in thermoelectric power generation?
(A) Bismuth telluride (Bi2Te3)
(B) Lead telluride (PbTe)
(C) Cesium sulphide (CeS)
(D) All the Above
Answer
Correct option is D
9. The process of emission of electron from the hot metal surfaces is called __________.
(A) Plastic emission
(B) Thermionic emission
(C) Static emission
(D) Current emission
Answer
Correct option is B
10. The particle emitted from hot cathode surface
(A) Neutrons
(B) Electrons
(C) Protons
Answer
Correct option is B
11. At room temperature, the electron cannot escape metal surface due to
(A) attractive forces of nucleus
(B) repulsive forces of electrons
(C) repulsive forces of nucleus
(D) pulling force of protons
Answer
Correct option is A
12. What causes wind?
(A) Rotation of the Earth
(B) The Sun heating the atmosphere
(C) Variation in the Earth’s surface

Answer
Correct option is D
13. What is the earliest recorded use for windmills?
(A) Generating electricity
(B) Pumping water
(C) Jousting
(D) Grinding grain
Answer
Correct option is B
14. How many blades does a modern wind turbine have?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) There is no standard number of blades.
Answer
Correct option is A
15. Which of these is NOT a part of a modern wind turbine?
(A) Gearbox
(B) Yaw drive
(C) Compressor
(D) Nacelle
Answer
Correct option is C
16. Which nation leads the world in installed wind energy capacity?
(A) China
(B) Germany
(C) Netherlands
(D) US
Answer
Correct option is A
17. What does Heating and cooling of the atmosphere generates?
(A) Conduction currents
(B) Convection currents
(C) Radiation currents
(D) Thermo line circulation
Answer
Correct option is B
18. What is the main source for the formation of wind?
(A) Uneven land
(B) Vegetation
(C) Seasons
(D) Sun
Answer

Correct option is D
19. Which country created wind mills?
(A) US
(B) Egypt
(C) Mongolia
(D) Iran
Answer
Correct option is D
20. Statement: During the day, the air above the land heats up more quickly than the air
over water
(A) True
(B) False
Answer
Correct option is A
21. What type of energy is wind energy?
(A) Renewable energy
(B) Non-renewable energy
(C) Conventional energy
(D) Commercial energy
Answer
Correct option is A
22. What are used to turn wind energy into electrical energy?
(A) Turbine
(B) Generators
(C) Blades
(D) Yaw motor
Answer
Correct option is A
23. Diameter of wind turbine blades …
(A) 320 feet
(B) 220 feet
(C) 80 feet
(D) 500 feet
Answer
Correct option is B
24. Suitable speed to operate wind turbines ……..
(A) 5 – 25 m/s
(B) 10 – 35 m/s
(C) 20 – 45 m/s
(D) 30 – 55 m/s
Answer
Correct option is A

25. Classification of winds is(are)
(A) Global wind
(B) Local wind
(D) None of these
Answer
Correct option is C
26. Global Cold wind move from
(A) Equatorial to polar region
(B) Polar to equatorial region
(C) Equatorial to oceanic region
(D) Oceanic to Equatorial region
Answer
Correct option is B
27. ________ force is responsible for forcing the global winds towards western direction.
(A) Coriolis
(B) Centripetal
(C) Centrifugal
(D) Gravitational
Answer
Correct option is A
28. Uneven heating occurs on land surface and water bodies are due to _____
(A) Air Currents
(B) Solar radiation
(C) Lunar eclipse
(D) None of these
Answer
Correct option is B
29. Factor affecting the distribution of wind energy
(A) Mountain chains
(B) The hills, trees and buildings
(C) Frictional effect of the surface
Answer
Correct option is D
30. The wind intensity can be described by
(A) Reynolds number
(B) Mach number
(C) Beaufort number
(D) Froude number
Answer
Correct option is C

Unit : 5 revision mcqs series
01 September 2020
Bio-mass: Availability of bio-mass and its conversion theory.
Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC): Availability, theory and working
principle, performance and limitations.
Wave and Tidal Wave: Principle of working, performance and limitations. Waste
Recycling Plants.
1. The ocean thermal energy conversion(OTEC) is uses ___________
a) Energy difference
b) Potential difference
c) Temperature difference
d) Kinetic difference
Answer: c
Explanation: The ocean thermal energy conversion uses the temperature difference
between cold water and hot water to produce electricity.
2. OTEC is developed in ___________
a) 1880
b) 1926
c) 1890
d) 1930
Answer: a
Explanation: The Ocean thermal energy conversion is developed in the year 1880. It is
the base loaded electricity generation.
3. The OTEC is constructed in __________
a) 1920
b) 1924
c) 1922
d) 1926
Answer: d
Explanation: The OTEC is constructed in 1926. The OTEC plant pump the sea water and
run the power cycle. It is developed in 1880.
4. The by-product of the ocean thermal energy conversion is ____________
a) Hot water
b) Cold water

c) Chemicals
d) Gases
Answer: b
Explanation: The by-product in the ocean thermal energy conversion is cold water. The
amount of cold water will be in large quantity.
5. In ocean thermal energy conversion, the plant pumps the deep cold sea water and do
not pump the surface sea water.
a) True
b) False Answer: b
Explanation: The ocean thermal energy conversion, the plant pumps the large quantity
of deep cold sea water and surface sea water as well to run a power cycle and produce
electricity.
6. How many types of OTEC plants are there?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: c
Explanation: There are three types of ocean thermal energy plants. They are closed
cycle systems, open cycle ocean thermal energy conversion and hybrid ocean thermal
energy conversion.
7. Closed cycle systems use the fluid having ___________
a) High boiling points
b) Low boiling points
c) High viscosity
d) low viscosity
Answer: b
Explanation: Closed cycle system uses the fluid having low boiling points. Ammonia is
one of the liquids having low boiling point which is having boiling point -330C to power
a turbine to generate electricity.
8. Warm surface sea water is pumped through a ____________ to vaporise the fluid.
a) Heat exchanger
b) Generator
c) Evaporator
d) Condenser

Answer: a
Explanation: Warm surface sea water is pumped through a heat exchanger to vaporise
the fluid. The expanded vapour turns the turbo generator to produce electricity.
9. The heat exchanger ___________ the vapour into a liquid which is recycled.
a) Condenses
b) Heats
c) Cools
d) Evaporates
Answer: a
Explanation: The heat exchanger condenses the vapour into a liquid which is recycled.
The surface water and the deep water is also drawn into the system.
10. Open cycle OTEC uses ________ surface water directly to make electricity.
a) Hot
b) Warm
c) Cool
d) Icy
Answer: b
Explanation: Open cycle ocean thermal energy conversion uses the warm surface water
to produce electricity. The warm water is first pumped into the low pressure container
and set to boil.
11. In some cases, the steam drives the low pressure turbine attached to the electrical
generator.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: In some cases, the steam drives the low pressure turbine attached to the
electrical generator.
12. The steam leaves the _______
a) Salts
b) Aluminium
c) Copper
d) Silver
Answer: a

Explanation: The steam leaves the salts and the all impurities when they are heated up
and left in the low pressure container to giver pure and fresh water.
13. The open cycle system produces ___________ water.
a) Desalinated
b) Impure
c) Contaminated
d) Chlorinated
Answer: a
Explanation: The open cycle system produces desalinated water and fresh. It is suitable
for drinking, irrigation and agriculture.
14. In _________ method the sea water enters a vacuum chamber and flash evaporated.
a) Closed cycle system
b) Open cycle system
c) Hybrid OTEC
d) Neither closed nor open system
Answer: c
Explanation: In hybrid OTEC method draws the sea water into the vacuum chamber and
flash evaporated similar to the open cycle system.
15. Depending on the embodiment ____________ technique generate power from hydro
electric turbine.
a) Closed cycle
b) Open cycle
c) Hybrid
d) Steam lift pump
Answer: d Explanation: Depending on the embodiment steam lift pump technique
generate power from hydro electric turbine either before or after the pump is used.
PART:2
Tidal and Wave Power
1. Tidal energy is a form of ________
a) Wind power
b) Solar power
c) Heat energy
d) Hydro power
Answer: d

Explanation: Tidal power is also called as tidal energy. It is a form of hydro power. It
converts the energy obtained from tides into useful forms of power mainly into
electricity.
2. Tidal energy has ________ for future electricity generation.
a) Kinetic energy
b) Potential
c) Wind power
d) Solar power
Answer: b
Explanation: Tidal energy has the potential for future electricity generation. Tidal are
more predictable than wind energy and solar power.
3. Which of the following is the best form of energy that can be used at any time?
a) Wind energy
b) Solar energy
c) Tidal energy
d) Heat energy
Answer: c
Explanation: The wind energy and solar energy are the most uncertain sources. The
solar energy can not be taken when it is cloudy and the wind cannot be blown all the
time. So, the tidal energy can be drawn any time.
4. The worlds large scale tidal power plant is __________
a) Rance tidal power plant
b) Uldolmok tidal power plant
c) Kislaya guba tidal power plant
d) Jiangxia tidal power plant
Answer: a
Explanation: The worlds largest tidal power plant is Rance tidal power plant. It is
located at France. The Uldolmok tidal power plant is located at south Korea.
5. The oceanic tides are due to __________
a) Heavy Winds
b) Slight earth quakes
c) Water force
d) Gravitational interaction
Answer: d

Explanation: The oceanic tides are due to the gravitational interaction. The gravitational
interaction is with the sun and moon and also due to earth’s rotation.
6. Tidal power is practically _________
a) Exhaustible
b) Inexhaustible
c) Not possible
d) Complicated
Answer: b
Explanation: The tidal power is practically inexhaustible. The oceanic tides exist at any
time and their occurance is certain and most predictable.
7. Movement of tides causes the loss of _________ in earth moon system.
a) Static energy
b) Frictional energy
c) Mechanical energy
d) Kinetic energy
Answer: c
Explanation: Movement of tides causes the loss of the mechanical friction in earth moon
system. It is due to the pumping of water through natural restrictions around the
coastal line and consequent viscous dissipation at the sea bed.
8. The loss of mechanical energy due to movement of tides in earth moon system causes
the rotation of earth _______
a) Slow
b) Fast
c) Very fast
d) Remains same
Answer: a
Explanation: The loss of mechanical energy due to the movement of tides in earth moon
system causes the rotation of earth slow in a couple of years after its formation.
9. The slow down of earth’s rotation due to the loss of mechanical energy of earth moon
system is since _______ years from earth’s formation.
a) 1 billion
b) 2.5 billion
c) 3.5 billion
d) 4.5 billion

Answer: d
Explanation: The earth’s rotation is slow down due to the loss of mechanical energy of
earth moon system. It is slowed down after 4.5 billion years after its formation.
10. During the last 620 billion years, the earth’s period of rotation is ________ than that of
the rotation of earth since its formation.
a) Faster
b) Slower
c) Very faster
d) No change
Answer: b
Explanation: As we already came to know that the earth’s rotation was slowed down
after 4.5 billion years from its formation. So, for every 4.5 billion years the earth’s
rotation slows down more.
1. Biomass derived from
(A) Plants
(B) Forest resedues
(C) Animal dung
Answer
Correct option is D
2. Biogas contain
(A) Methane
(B) Ethane
(C) Propane
(D) Butane
Answer
Correct option is A
3. The principle of biochemical conversion having
(A) Anaerobic digestion
(B) Fermentation
(C) Both
(D) None of above
Answer
Correct option is C
4. Which are the stage of digestion system ?
(A) Hydrolysis
(B) Acidification
(C) Methane formation

Answer
Correct option is D
5. What is the percentage at which rated power from biogas in petrol engine can be
developed?
(A) 70
(B) 80
(C) 85
(D) 90
Answer
Correct option is C
6. Which of the SI engine can be run on biogas?
(A)Diesel engine
(B) Petrol engine
(C) IC engine
(D) None of above
Answer
Correct option is B
7. How many types of gasifiers are there?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Answer
Correct option is C
8. Which is the type of energy where the energy is harnessed by the heat accumulated
on the surface of water?
(A) Wind energy
(B) Solar energy
(C) Ocean thermal energy conversion
(D) None of these
Answer
Correct option is C
9. Who first recognized the OTEC ?
(A) D’Arsonva
(B) Alexander Edmond Becquerel
(C) James Prescott joule
(D) None of these
Answer
Correct option is A
10. Which of the following has the lowest efficiency?
(A) Wave energy
(B) Solar energy

(C) Wind energy
(D) OTEC
Answer
Correct option is D
11. Anderson cycle is also known as
(A) Open cycle
(B) Closed cycle
(C) Cloud cycle
(D) None of above
Answer
Correct option is B
12. Cloud cycle is also known as
(A) Open Cycle
(B) Closed Cycle
(C) Anderson Cycle
(D) None of above
Answer
Correct option is A
13. The working fluid chosen by Anderson OTEC cycle is
(A) Water
(B) Propane
(C) Engine oil
(D) Methane
Answer
Correct option is B
14. From which cycle does maximum possible efficiency of a heat engine operating
between two temperature limits cannot exceed?
(A) Open Cycle
(B) Closed Cycle
(C) Otto Cycle
(D) Carnot Cycle
Answer
Correct option is D
15. The ocean thermal energy conversion (OTEC) is uses
(A) Energy difference
(B) Potential difference
(C) Temperature difference
Answer
Correct option is C
16. Waves are caused indirectly by ______
(A) Wave energy
(B) Wind energy

(C) Solar energy
(D) Thermal energy
Answer
Correct option is C
17. Which type of turbine is commonly used in tidal energy?
(A) Francis turbine
(B) Pelton wheel
(C) Kaplan turbine
(D) Gorlov turbine
Answer
Correct option is B
18. Which country has world’s largest tidal power plant?
(A) Laos
(B) Netherlands
(C) South korea
(D) Austria
Answer
Correct option is C
19. how much time does it take for one tidal cycle?
(A) 22h, 20moC
(B) 24h, 50m oC
(C) 22h, 50m oC
(D) 24h, 20m oC
Answer
Correct option is B
20. What type of tide is it if the difference between high and low tide is greatest?.
(A) Diurnal tide
(B) Neap tide
(C) Ebb tide
(D) Spring tide
Answer
Correct option is D
21. A tide whose difference between high and low tides is least is called as
(A) Diurnal tide
(B) Neap tide
(C) Ebb tide
(D) Spring tide
Answer
Correct option is B
22. What types of tides occur when there is so much interference with continents?
(A) Diurnal tide
(B) Neap tide
(C) Ebb tide

(D) Spring tide
Answer
Correct option is A
23. Tidal energy has ________ for future electricity generation.
(A) Wind energy
(B) Solar energy
(C) Potential
(D) None of these
Answer
Correct option is C

Renewable energy resources mcqs quiz unit(1 5)

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