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Can someone please prove it explaining the steps. Thank you I will rate.
Solution
We can derive using purely polar coordinates. Start with
z(r,?)f(z)=rei?=u(r,?)+iv(r,?)
We define f?(z) using the limit
f?(z)=limz?0?f?z
where
?f?z=?u+i?v=z(r+?r,?+??)?z(r,?)=(r+?r)ei(?+??)?rei?
Next, we try to first approach from ???0,
?z=(r+?r)ei??rei?=?rei?
Therefore when we take the limit,
f?(z)=lim?r?0?u+i?v?rei?=1ei?(ur+ivr)(1)
On the other hand, approaching from ?r?0 first yields
?z=rei(?+??)?rei?
Using the derivative
ei(?+??)?ei?=dei?d???=iei???
we get
?z=irei???
Therefore
f?(z)=lim???0?u+i?virei???=1irei?(u?+iv?)(2)
Finally, comparing the real and imaginary parts of (1) and (2) gives us what we want:
ur=1rv?,vr=?1ru?

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Can someone please prove it explaining the steps. Thank you I will r.pdf

  • 1. Can someone please prove it explaining the steps. Thank you I will rate. Solution We can derive using purely polar coordinates. Start with z(r,?)f(z)=rei?=u(r,?)+iv(r,?) We define f?(z) using the limit f?(z)=limz?0?f?z where ?f?z=?u+i?v=z(r+?r,?+??)?z(r,?)=(r+?r)ei(?+??)?rei? Next, we try to first approach from ???0, ?z=(r+?r)ei??rei?=?rei? Therefore when we take the limit, f?(z)=lim?r?0?u+i?v?rei?=1ei?(ur+ivr)(1) On the other hand, approaching from ?r?0 first yields ?z=rei(?+??)?rei? Using the derivative ei(?+??)?ei?=dei?d???=iei??? we get ?z=irei??? Therefore f?(z)=lim???0?u+i?virei???=1irei?(u?+iv?)(2) Finally, comparing the real and imaginary parts of (1) and (2) gives us what we want: ur=1rv?,vr=?1ru?