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1.

True for aortic malformation
A
Patent ductus arteriosus
B
Coarctation of aorta
C
Double aortic arch
D
Abnormal origin ...
E

Associated with dextrocardia

8.

Lateral plate mesoderm gives rise to
A
Serosal membrane that lines the coelom
B
Septu...
D
E

dose
Extremely high dose may cause insufficient blood supply to the fetus
The usage in preeclamptic patient has to be...
21.

These methods suppress lactation
A
Oestrogen
B
Restricted fluid intake
C
Intermittent, reducing frequencies of expres...
28.

Hormone dynamics during pregnancy
A
The placenta cannot synthesise oestrogen from C-21 steroids
B
The placenta can ut...
E

Hyperplasia and hypertrophy of myometrial fibres occur

35.

The following biochemical changes occur in normal pregnanc...
C
D
E

Oestrogen excretion increases with parity
Oestrogen excretion is higher in mothers with female fetuses
A falling pa...
E

Are increased during labour

48.

Fetal pulmonary maturity
A
Is delayed in diabetic pregnancies
B
Normally occurs befor...
55.

Transplacental transfer of blood constituents may cause neonatal disease,
when the mother is suffering from
A
Hyperpa...
62.

The following description are correct
A
Chi- squared test – the standard test for comparing the difference between tw...
69.

Addison’s syndrome
A
Hyponatraemia
B
Vomiting
C
Muscle wasting
D
Hypokalaemia
E
Metabolic acidosis

70.

Pineal gland...
76.

Which of the following hormones stimulates gluconeogenesis?
A
Progesterone
B
Glucagon
C
Aldosterone
D
Epinephrine
E
T...
83.

Common aetiological agents of salpingitis
A
Neisseria gonorrhoea
B
Bacteroides fragilis
C
E Coli
D
Chlamydia trachoma...
90.

Collagen
A
Has double helical structure
B
Shows regular banding pattern on electronic microscopy
C
Not found normally...
97.

Bromocriptine
A
Suppresses LH production
B
Causes headache
C
Is teratogenic
D
Causes postural hypotension
E
Is anties...
104. Regarding ambiguous genitalia
A
Palpable gonads with chromatin – True haemophradite (XX/XY)
B
Gonad not palpable with...
E

An alpha 2 globulin synthesized in the liver is a substrate for renin

111. Coagulation of blood may me impaired
A
When...
D
E

Oral administration of Verapamil
Intravenous administration of Dobutamine

118. Essential aminoacids for adults inclu...
E

Kallidin

125. Benign, rather than malignant neoplasms are characterized by the following
features
A
Increased numbers ...
131. Normal micturition
A
Depends on the integrity of a sacral spinal reflex arc
B
Is prevented by sectioning of the ensor...
138. In left ventricular heart failure
A
There is often peripheral vasodilatation
B
Salt and water retention is common
C
T...
145. Dystrophic calcification
A
May occur in the absence of any derangement of calcium metabolism
B
May result in the form...
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MRCOG PART 1 PRACTICE MCQ

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150 practice questions for MRCOQ part 1 examination

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MRCOG PART 1 PRACTICE MCQ

  1. 1. 1. True for aortic malformation A Patent ductus arteriosus B Coarctation of aorta C Double aortic arch D Abnormal origin of subclavian artery E Patent foramen ovale 2. Embryonic period is A 4-8 weeks B Period of organogenesis C When major malformation to the embryo can occur due to exposure to teratogen D Growth and differentiation of tissues E When morphogenesis of embryo occurs 3. Klinefelter Syndrome A Chromosome XXY pattern B Chromosomal make up may be XXXXY C Hypoplastic uterus D Streak Ovaries E oligospermia 4. A complete hydatidiform mole A Is pregnancy without embryo B Secrete human chorionic gonadothrophin C Show partial development of an embryo D Is diploid but contains only paternal chromosomes E Main causative mechanism has been shown to be monoeprmic fertilization of an anucleated eggs 5. 44 days (7 weeks)old human embryo A Genital ridge appears B Skeletal ossification begins C Sertoli cells begin to differentiate D Pigment appears in retina E Elbow and toe rays appear 6. Klinefelter Syndrome A Hypoplastic uterus B Streak Ovaries C Sex chromatin positive D Increase number of X chromosome associated with mental retardation E Female external genitalia 7. Endocardial cushion defect A Primary type atrial septal defect B Result of defective fusion of the septum primum with the endocardial cushion leaving a patent foramen ovale C A seldom seen abnormality D Complete endocardial cushion defect is een in 20% of all Down’s Syndrome -1-
  2. 2. E Associated with dextrocardia 8. Lateral plate mesoderm gives rise to A Serosal membrane that lines the coelom B Septum transversum C Somatopleuric mesoderm coating the inner surface of the body wall D Dorsal mesentery E The splanchnopleuric mesoderm ensheathing the gut tube 9. Complete duplicate ureters, the reasons A Premature bifurcation of ureteric bud B Two ureteric buds arised from mesonephric duct and penetrates the metanephric blasterma C Abnormality in the mechanism of mesonephric duct D Abnormality in the Weigwert Mayer’s rule E Defects in the interaction between ureteric bud and metanephric blasterma 10. Main cause of Potter’s syndrome A Bilateral renal agenesis B Oligohydramnios C Unilateral renal agenesis D Renal hypoplasia E Renal dysplasia 11. Spermatogenic cells A Sertoli cells B Spermatogonia C Spermatozoa D Spermatocytes E Spermatids 12. Fetal blood A α feto protein is a smaller molecule than albumin B The increased white cell count at term is due to polymorphonucleocyte C 1◦ megaloblastic erythroblast appears at 8/52 D The liver, yolk sac, bone marrow produces 2◦ erythroblastic megaloblasts after birth E Bone marrow and liver produce α chains 13. The following statement is not true A The foregut and hindgut are endodermal in origin B The superior mesenteric artery supplies the hidgut C The formation of peptidases in small intestines begins at 10/52 D The peristaltic movements begin at 30/52 E The acidification of stomach begins at birth 14. The following are true regarding oxytocin A It causes ascending contraction from the cervix to the fundus B The receptors in the uterus increase with gestation C The amplitude and frequency of uterine contraction is not proportionate to the -2-
  3. 3. D E dose Extremely high dose may cause insufficient blood supply to the fetus The usage in preeclamptic patient has to be with caution 15. Prostaglandin A Increases the uterine tone B Is a useful abortifacient C E2 is used for cervical ripening D Causes cervical relaxation E Inhibits gravid uterine contraction stimulated by oxytocin 16. Oxytocin A Inhibits milk production B Has vasodilator effect C Is used in induction of labour D Causes water retention E Is effective in treating menorrhagia 17. Ergometrine A Does not contract a postpartum uterus B Has vasodilatation effect C Inhibits emesis D Stimulates contraction of mioepithelium of mammary glands E Is effective in postpartum haemorrhage 18. Prostaglandin A E2α does not cause gravid uterine contraction B F2α relaxes a non-gravid uterus C Causes menorrhagia D Is effective in the treatment of dysmenorrhoea E F2α is synthesized plentifully in the uterus 19. The following statements are true regarding lactation A The alveolar septum secretes milk B The mineralocorticoid, prolactin and oxytocin are needed for maturation of the mammary gland C The enzyme specifier B lactalbumin is switched off by progesterone D Lactose synthesizing enzyme is a complex of galactocyl transferase and α lactalbumin E Lactose is synthesized in large quantity ante- and intrapartum 20. Breast milk A The carbohydrate content is the product of condensation of galactose and glucose B Almost 10% of human milk is fat C The main source of protein is casein D The colostrum has higher immunoglobulin than full cream milk E The electolytes content are all higher when compared with plasma -3-
  4. 4. 21. These methods suppress lactation A Oestrogen B Restricted fluid intake C Intermittent, reducing frequencies of expressing milk D Adequate breast support E Bromocriptine 22. The following are true A The milk energy content is 1000kCal/L B The cow’s milk has equal carbohydrate but more fat than breast milk C Milk ejection is a neuron-endocrine reflex D Psychological stress suppresses lactation E Lactational amenorrhoea provides contraception on in the first 3 months 23. The following are correct A Conceptual age = ovulating age +/- 14 days B The ovulatory age assumes fertilization at day 14 of any menstrual cycle C Menstrual age/ gestation = ovulatory age +/- 14 days D The trophoblast forms lacunae after the day of embedding E The connecting stalk following retraction of 2◦ yolk sac fron chorionic cavity is the definitive yolk sac 24. The following combinations are correct A Epidermis & appendages – ectoderm B Bladder & urethral epithelium – mesoderm C Pancreas duct and islet – endoderm D Connecting stalk – umbilical cord E Morula – Day 4 week 1 25. Fetal pituitary gland A Anterior pituitary – from Pouch of Rathke B Neural tube – from anterior lobe of pituitary C GH and prolactin – begins synthesis from second trimester D Parapharyngeal pouch IV – superior parathyroid (dorsal) E Pharyngeal pouch II – thyroid gland 26. The activity of the following endocrine glands are increased during pregnancy A Thyroid B Hypothalamus C Adrenals D Breasts E Pituitary 27. The normal endocrinological change occurring in pregnancy are A Increased ACTH B Increased prolactin C Increased thyroxine levels D Increased cortisol levels E Increased rennin levels -4-
  5. 5. 28. Hormone dynamics during pregnancy A The placenta cannot synthesise oestrogen from C-21 steroids B The placenta can utilize only C-19 steroids as precursors for oestrogen biosynthesis C The major of the oestrogen precursors is from the mother D Dehydroepi-androsterone sulphate originates from fetal adrenal E Placental sulphatase deficiency causes low oestrogen production resulting in deleterious fetal growth 29. The following statements aabout hormonal situation in pregnancy are correct A Maximal hCG levels are found between day 60 and 80 of pregnancy B HPL raises maternal blood sugar C Oestradiol accounts for 90% of oestrogen secreted in pregnancy D Progesterone levels decrease before birth E SP1 has an ovarian origin 30. Excretion of the following increases progressively from the 20th to 36th week of normal pregnancy A Oestradiol B Pregnanediol C Chorionic gonadotrophin D Pregnanetriol E Oestrone 31. The following increases in the urine during pregnancy A Oestriol B Progesterone C Vaninyl mandelic acid D Relaxin E Pregnanediol 32. During pregnancy A The output of maternal parathormone is increased B The placenta secretes relaxin C The corpus luteum begins to atrophy soon after implantation D The placenta can convert glucose into glycogen E There is negative nitrogen balance 33. In normal pregnancy A There are equal increases in the excretion of oestrone, oestradiol and oestriol B Serum hCG concentration rises to a peak at 20 weeks gestation C There is reduced aldosterone secretion D Androgen excretion is reduced E There is an increase in serum protein bound iodine 34. The following changes in the genital tract occur during pregnancy A Decrease vaginal pH B Cervical ectopy C Throphoblastic invasion of spiral arteries D The lower segment forms in the mid-trimester -5-
  6. 6. E Hyperplasia and hypertrophy of myometrial fibres occur 35. The following biochemical changes occur in normal pregnancy A Decrease in serum albumin B Decrease in serum IgG C Decrease in blood urea D Decrease in iron binding capacity E Decrease in total haemoglobin 36. In early pregnancy A The chorion leave is the precursor of the true placenta B The uterine cavity is obliterated when the decidua capsularis comes in contact with the decidua vera C The syncytiotrophoblast is in contact with maternal blood D Both vitelline veins will become umbilical veins E The zygote begins to embed in the uterus at the age of 3 days 37. During pregnancy there is an increase in the size of A Uterine muscle cells B Uterine fibrous and elastic tissues C Uterine blood vessels D Frankenhauser’s ganglion E Pituitary gland 38. Lactation A is initiated by a postpartum prolactin surge B Requires the presence of adequate circulating growth hormone C Is controlled by oxytocin D Inhibits ovulation in 50% of nursing mothers E Occurs inappropriately in the Budd-Chiari Syndrome 39. During pregnancy A Glycosuria is an effective test of carbohydrate intolerance B Fasting plasma glucose concentration is decreased C Fasting plasma insulin concentration is decreased D The oral glucose tolerance test alters with advancing gestation E Two hours after an oral glucose load, plasma insulin concentration should have returned to fasting levels 40. The following hormone shelp to maintain established lactation A Prolactin B Human placental lactogen C Corticosteroids D Oestrogen E Growth hormone 41. The following statements relate to the total oestrogen excretion in pregnancy A 30% of urinary oestrogens are conjugates of oestradiol B In defining the normal range of excretion, biological and assay variations are additive -6-
  7. 7. C D E Oestrogen excretion increases with parity Oestrogen excretion is higher in mothers with female fetuses A falling pattern of Oestrogen excretion within the normal range, is a reliable guide to fetal prognosis 42. Falling levels of total oestrogen in maternal urine during pregnancy may often indicate A Antepartum haemorrhage B Impending fetal death C Fetal adrenal hyperplasia D Fetal abnormality E Tobacco smoking 43. At birth A The foramen ovale closes immediately B The ductus arteriosus constricts in response to hypoxia C The pulmonary vasculature constricts vigorously in response to acidosis D Output from the left ventricle increases E Pressure falls in the right ventricle and pulmonary atery 44. The following are normal peripheral blood values at birth A Mean Hb of 12g/dl B Fetal Hb of 25% on electrophoresis C White cell count of 15,000 – 20,000 cu. Mm D Lymphocyte count of 90% of total white cell count E Serum bilirubin of up to 100 mmol/l 45. In the fetal circulation A The two umbilical veins carry blood from the fetus to the placenta for gaseous exchange B The oxygen content is higher in the umbilical artery than the carotid artery C Under normal circumstances, blood from the superior vena cava is minimally shunted through the foramen ovale D Ductus venosus is the first shunt for the oxygenated blood coming from the placenta E The circulation in the umbilical arteries and the placenta has lower resistance 46. Lack of surfactatnt in the infant lungs A Tends to be more marked the more prematurely is the infant born B Increases the tendency of the lungs to remain expanded despite the infant’s expiratory efforts C Leads to poor oxygenation of the blood before birth D Does not change the overall work of breathing E Prevents the delivery of fetus in pre-eclampsia at 34 weeks 47. Fetal respiratory movements in utero A Are normally present for 80% of a 24 hour period B Occur at a frequency of 2 per minute C Are increased in diabetic pregnancies D Are reduced by maternal hyperventilation -7-
  8. 8. E Are increased during labour 48. Fetal pulmonary maturity A Is delayed in diabetic pregnancies B Normally occurs before the 36th week of gestation C Is influenced by maternal corticosteroid levels D Is controlled by α fetoprotein E Is delayed in anencephaly 49. The following are Gram positive bacteria A Clostridium welchii B Mycobacterium tuberculosis C Neisseria meningitis D Bacillus anthracis E Vibrio cholera 50. The following blood coagulation factors are increased during pregnancy A Factor I B Factor VII C Platelets D Factor XIII E Factor X 51. The purine bases nucleic acids include A Adenine B Cytosine C Uracil D Guanine E Thymine 52. The following vitamins are fat soluble A Vitamin A B Vitamin B2 C Vitamin D D Vitamin K E Vitamin C 53. In normal thyroid physiology A The mammary gland can trap iodide B T4 is released from TBG by proteolysis C Thyroxine binding protein is a beta globulin D TBG has 3 times greater affinity for triiodothyronine E The normal range of protein bound iodine in the blood is 4-8 mcg per 100ml 54. The posterior relation of the ovary include A Ureter B Internal iliac artery C Ovarian artery D External iliac artery E Ovarian ligament -8-
  9. 9. 55. Transplacental transfer of blood constituents may cause neonatal disease, when the mother is suffering from A Hyperparathyroidism B Tuberosclerosis C Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura D SLE E Rheumatoid arthritis 56. The following are transported across the placenta A IgA B IgG C Calcium D Insulin E Pethidine 57. The rate of maternal-to-fetal oxygen flux across the placenta depends on A Uterine blood flow rate B Fetal oxygen consumption rate C The oxygen gradient across the placenta D Carbon dioxide transfer E Fetal haemoglobin 58. Normal urodynamic study A First sensation of micturition at 300ml B Residual urine 0-10ml C Maximum urine flow rate 100-150 ml/s D Voiding volume 200-300 ml E Bladder capacity >600ml 59. Which of the following have a dominant inheritance A Marfan’s Syndrome B Tuberous sclerosis C Spherocytosis D Sturge-Weber Syndrome E Blue/ green colour blindness 60. Human placental lactogen A Has a molecular weight of 21 600 B Has a half life of 15 minutes C Has no carbohydrate residues D Has two chains of amino acids E Is excreted in the urine 61. the following examples of teratogenic agents and their effects are correct A Phenytoin – nasal hypoplasia B Lithium – cleft palate, spina bifida C Irradiation – leukaemia D Quinine – optic nerve hypoplasia E Warfarin – cleft palate -9-
  10. 10. 62. The following description are correct A Chi- squared test – the standard test for comparing the difference between two means B F-test – the standard method for comparing the size of variances C Correlation – the relation between 2 variables D Mean – the most frequently occurring value E Standard deviation – the square of variance 63. the following features of Actinonyces Israeli are true A Gram positive B Aerobic C Mouth commensal D Causes unilateral salpingitis E Associated with ‘Dalkon Shield’ 64. The cardiovascular changes in pregnancy are A Increase stroke volume B Increase heart rate C All heart sounds are louder D First heart sound is split E A diastolic murmur is normal 65. The ECG done during pregnancy may show A High voltage QRS complexes B Deep Q waves C Inversion of T waves D ST depression E Ventricular extrasystoles 66. The vagina A Has 3 layers of cells B pH is normally acidic C Vaginal fluid has a higher potassium level D Vaginal fluid has a higher sodium level E Vaginal fluid may act as pheromones 67. The following associations are correct A Genital folds – labia majora B Genital swelling – Bartholin’s glands C Mullerian duct – ovary, fallopian tubes and uterus D Genital swelling – Bulbouethral glands E Genital tubercle – clitoris 68. The following nerve originates from the lumbar plexus A Superior gluteal B Genitofemoral C Pedendal D Obturator E Femoral - 10 -
  11. 11. 69. Addison’s syndrome A Hyponatraemia B Vomiting C Muscle wasting D Hypokalaemia E Metabolic acidosis 70. Pineal gland A Innervated by parasympathetic neurons B Secrete melatonin C Innervated by sympathetic pathways D Present in the roof of third ventricle E Vestigial gland in humans 71. Glucagon A Secreted by alpha cells of islets of langerhans B Single chain polypeptide C Secretion increases during exercise and stress D Glycogenolytic hormone E Ketogenic hormone 72. Human Chorionic Gonadotrophin A Has alpha and beta chain B Has molecular weight of 28000 C UPT detects urine B HCG D Similar to luteinising hormone E Secreted by corpus luteum in pregnancy 73. Amniotic fluid A Is alkalotic B Contains fetal epithelial cells C Is the transudate from fetal intracellular cells D Is acidic E Volume increases as pregnancy advances 74. Structures passing through the Greater Sciatic Notch below the piriformis A Internal pudendal neurovascular bundle B Posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh C Tendon of obturator internus D Superior gluteal nerve E Inferior gluteal neurovascular bundle 75. Which of the following hormones promotes hypoglycaemia? A Epinephrine B Norepinephrine C Insulin D Glucagon E Glucocorticoids - 11 -
  12. 12. 76. Which of the following hormones stimulates gluconeogenesis? A Progesterone B Glucagon C Aldosterone D Epinephrine E Thyroxine 77. The citric acid cycle is inhibited by which of the following? A Fluoroacetate B Fluorouracil C Aerobic conditions D Arsenic E Malic acid 78. Which one of the following enzymes catalyses high-energy phosphorylation of substrates during glycolysis? A Pyruvate kinase B Phosphoglycerate kinase C Triose phosphate isomerase D Aldolase E Glyceraldehydes-3-phosphate dehydrogenase 79. Which are the ketogenic amino acids? A Leucine B Isoleucine C Phenylalanine D Tyrosine E Alanine 80. Tricarboxylic cycle (Krebs Cycle) A Occurs in aerobic B Occurs in the mitochondria C Net production of 2 ATPs D End product is carbon dioxide and water E Occurs in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions 81. The following are true A Human parvovirus B19 is associated with hydrops fetalis B Intrauterine infection occurs as a result of maternal herpes zoster C CMV is excreted in breast milk D Coxsackie A virus causes neonatal myocarditis E Hepatitis B virus is frequently transmitted to fetus during vaginal delivery 82. Lymphocytes in health A Form 2% of white cell count B Play an essential role in cell-medicated immunity C Can change into plasma cells D Have proportionately more nuclear material than cytoplasm E Have a life span of about 30 days - 12 -
  13. 13. 83. Common aetiological agents of salpingitis A Neisseria gonorrhoea B Bacteroides fragilis C E Coli D Chlamydia trachomatis E Salmonella sp. 84. The following are frequently associated with postpartum infection A Group B streptococcus B Staphylococcus aureus C Pseudomonas aeruginosa D Bacteroides fragilis E Eischerichia coli 85. Chlamydia trachomatis is associated with A Low sperm counts in men B Chronic pelvic pain in women C Asymptomatic endometritis D Recurrent salphingitis E Prostatic hypertrophy 86. Morphine A Is detoxified by oxidation to gentisic acid B Increases biliary tract pressure C Is eliminated mainly in conjugated state via glomerular filtrate D Is secreted in bile E Alters the threshold or responsivity of nerve endingd to noxious stimuli 87. In 28 days old embryo A Ureteric bud present B Otic vesicle and lens placode C Neural fold begins to fuse D Myocardium forms and hearts begins to pump E Spinal nerve begins to sprout 88. Which of these derived from derived from hypoblast A Extraembryonic endoderm B Amniotic membrane C Exocoelomic membrane D Heuser’s membrane E Extraembryonic endoderm 89. Wilm’s tumour A Is a nephroblastoma that contain mixed layer of cells and tissues B Is one of the most frequent neoplasm in children C Arised from abnormal gonadal agenesis D Is a type of benign tumour found in teenagers E Is associated with VAGR syndrome - 13 -
  14. 14. 90. Collagen A Has double helical structure B Shows regular banding pattern on electronic microscopy C Not found normally in absence of ascorbic acid D Is not found within basement membrane E Synthesis imhibited by glucocorticoids 91. High alpha fetoprotein is associated with A Seminoma B Hepatoblastoma C Embryonal carcinoma D Choriocarcinoma E Breast carcinoma 92. Extrabasal cells are commonly seen in smears of A Normal reproductive women B Postnatal period C Postmenopausal period D Pregnancy E Impending abortion 93. Features of secretory phase endometrium include A Supranuclear vacuolation of epithelium B Decidual change in stroma C Pseudostratification of columnar epithelium D Stromal oedema E Saw-tooth appearance of glands 94. Features of hydropic swelling in a cell are due to A Accumulation of fluid in cytoplasm B Dilatation of endoplasmic reticulum C Mitochondrial swelling D Swelling of nuclei E Disruption of Golgi apparatus 95. Examples of metaplasia include A Leukoplakia of vulva B Development of cystitis glandularis of urinary bladder C Intestinalisation of gastric epithelium D Development of carcinoma in situ in cervical epithelium E Ossification of scar tissue 96. In acute disseminated intravascular coagulation A PT and PTT are prolonged B There is presence of fragmented RBCs in peripheral blood film C Important part of management is treatment of the cause D Heparin may be useful E Thrombin time is not prolonged - 14 -
  15. 15. 97. Bromocriptine A Suppresses LH production B Causes headache C Is teratogenic D Causes postural hypotension E Is antiestrogenic 98. The effects of clomiphene include A Hot flushes B Transient blurring of vision C Abortion D Ovarian enlargement E Hirsutism 99. Combined oral contraceptives A Prevent menstruation if given continuously B Are contraindicated in pregnancy C Act mainly by preventing implantation of fertilised ovum D Depress secretion of anterior pituitary hormones E Increase body weight 100. Bacteriosis A Is due to Gram negative organisms B May be effectively treated with penicillin C May occur as transplacental infection D May be sexually transmitted E Presents in adults as a flu-like illness 101. The following structures are likely to be injured in submandibulectomy A Cervical branch of the facial nerve B Otic ganglion C Hypoglossal nerve D Lingual nerve E Retromandibular vein 102. The following statements are true of perianal suppuration A It arises from anal glands B It travels to ischiorectal fossa via the external sphincter C It passes intersphincterically to the perianal skin D Is found in ulcerative colitis E The surgical drainage leads to perianal fistula 103. The following are true of hypercalcaemia A It can present as an acute pancreatitits B Is commonly caused by metastatic lesion in the bones C Is lowered by calcitonin D There is a U wave in ECG E It can cause cardiac arrest - 15 -
  16. 16. 104. Regarding ambiguous genitalia A Palpable gonads with chromatin – True haemophradite (XX/XY) B Gonad not palpable with positive chromatin – CAH C Commonest cause of ambiguous genitalia – CAH D Incomplete 46XY gonadal dysgenesis – normal gonad E Klinefelter’s – 46XY/ 45XO 105. Regarding prescribing in pregnancy A Tetracycline is not contraindicated B Cotrimoxazole causes Grey Syndrome C Heparin crosses the placenta D Nitrofurantoin is harmful to the fetus E Warfarin causes chondrodysplasia 106. Regarding the gene A Unit of genetic information which is a Mendel’s factor B The protein polypeptide chains of gene is synthesized in the nucleus C Only riboxine and mRNA necessary for polypeptide synthesis D TATA box aids in mRNA polymerase II to the correct initiation site for transcription E Hybridization is not part of DNA diagnosis 107. These combinations are true A Autosomal dominant – Huntington’s disease B Autosomal recessive – Tuberous sclerosis C Autosomal recessive – monozygote carriers D Autosomal recessive – Albinism E Sex linked – father to son transmission 108. Regarding bacteria A Transition of losing the capsule is a R S transition B As the refractive index is less than H2O it is difficult to be visualized C The basis of typing in GMN is the Thecoic acid D The B lactamase is found in plasmic spaces E The hydrophobic nature of mycobacterium confers the acid fastness characteristics 109. Regarding fat A The density of fat is proportionate to protein content B Complexes composed of triglycerides and phospholipids C HDL transports the main bulk of plasma cholesterol D The synthesis of LDL is in the liver E HDL contains 50% protein mainly A1, A2 110. In the adult human A Plasma albumin is synthesized in the liver B Elevated serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) activity is a good indicator of liver damage C There are about 76g of protein per litre of plasma D Plasma fibrinogen is synthesized in the liver - 16 -
  17. 17. E An alpha 2 globulin synthesized in the liver is a substrate for renin 111. Coagulation of blood may me impaired A When factor VIII is deficient B When factor IX is deficient C When vitamin A is deficient D Immediately on administration of coumarin anticoagulants E By heparin which promotes inhibition of thrombin synthesis 112. Coagulation of blood A Is inhibited by plasmin B Is promoted by urokinase C Is inhibited by ancrod, a thrombin-like enzyme D Is inhibited by aminocaproic acid E May be promoted by aprotinin 113. In the skeletal muscle A Tetrodotoxin blocks membrane calcium channel B Thiocyanate ions lower the threshold for mechanical activation C Caffeine potentiates contraction by inhibition of phosphodiesterase D Beta 2 selective adrenoceptor agonists increase twitch tension in fast contracting fibres E Excessive circulating thyroid hormones cause tremors 114. D tubocurarine (Curare) A Is a competitive neuromuscular blocker B Causes a blockade which is intensified by neostigmine C Does not affect transmission in autonomic ganglia D Causes paralysis preceded by fasciculations of skeletal muscles E Produces a block at the motor end plate that is antagonized by potassium chloride 115. Cardiac sympathetic nerves A Have preganglionic axons arising from the lumbar segments of the spinal cord B Have postganglionic axons in three bilateral nerve trunks C Innervate cardiac pacemaker and contractile tissue only D Contain both afferent and efferent axons E Have postganglionic cell bodies entirely within the stellate ganglion 116. In an normal resting man, a bradycardia would be expected to occur following A Increased carotid sinus pressure B Increased right atrial pressure C Application of pressure to the eyeball D Intravenous administration of a large dose of atropine E inspiration 117. Angina pectoris may be ameliorated by A An effect of glyceryl trinitrate on coronary arterial perfusion of ischaemic myocardium B B adrenoceptor antagonist, such as propranolol C Administration of hyperbaric oxygen - 17 -
  18. 18. D E Oral administration of Verapamil Intravenous administration of Dobutamine 118. Essential aminoacids for adults include A Leucine B Phenylalanine C Histidine D Valine E Lysine 119. The following hormones are increased during pregnancy A Insulin B Parathyroid hormones C Calcitonin D Cortisol E Growth hormones 120. The following associations are correct A Chloramphenicol – Grey syndrome B Tetracycline – hypoplasia of primary teeth C Novobiocin – neonatal jaundice D Rifampicin – spina bifida E Chlorothiazide - thrombocytopenia 121. Spinbarkeit activity A Pertains to the arborisation phenomenon B Peaks following ovulation C Increases in activity in the proliferative phase D Is caused by the progesterone effect E Is taken in consideration in the Billing’s method 122. The early menstrual cycles in a woman reproductive life are usually A Anovulatory B Painful C Irregular D Has longer luteal phase E Before breast enlargement occurs 123. These are examples of primary chronic inflammation A Unresolving lobar pneumonia B Sarcoidosis C Appendiceal abscess mass D Tuberculosis E Leprosy 124. The following substances are recognized chemical mediators of inflammation A Histamine B Prostaglandin C Dopamine D Amiodarone - 18 -
  19. 19. E Kallidin 125. Benign, rather than malignant neoplasms are characterized by the following features A Increased numbers of mitotic figures B Microinvasion C Nuclear pleomorphism D Orderly maturation E Ability to metastasize 126. The following tumours are correctly matched A Burkitt’s lymphoma – a t-cell lymphoma common in Europe B Kaposi’s sarcoma – a vascular neoplasm associated with AIDS C Wilm’s tumour – an embryonal tumour of the kidney D Grawitz tumour – adrenocortical carcinoma E Ewing’s tumour – a malignant tumour of bone of uncertain histogenesis 127. Which of the following is NOT associated with thrombosis A Bleeding B Activation of the coagulation mechanism C Endothelial damage D Formation of platelet aggregates E Thrombocytopenia 128. In a patient with the following results: pH = 7.34, PCO2 = 29 mmHg, bicarbonate = 15 mmol/L Na = 134 mmol/L, Cl- = 90mmol/L, K+ = 4 mmol/L A B C D E The patient is hyperventilating The patient has respiratory alkalosis It could be at a compensated stage The anion gap is reduced In this patient, formation of ammonia in the kidneys will be increased 129. Concerning acid-base balance A The proteins are quantitatively most important buffers in the body B The renal H+ secretion mechanism depends on tubular acidity C The urine may be acidic during chronic vomiting D The chloride concentration will increase in chronic vomiting E The body K+ concentration will increase in chronic diabetic ketosis 130. The plasma concentration of HCO3- is low in A Compensated metabolic acidosis B Uncompensated respiratory acidosis C Compensated respiratory acidosis D Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis E Compensated respiratory alkalosis - 19 -
  20. 20. 131. Normal micturition A Depends on the integrity of a sacral spinal reflex arc B Is prevented by sectioning of the ensory nerves supplying the bladder C May occur with spinal transaction in the thoracic region D Relaxation of sphincters followed by detrusor contraction E Is under voluntary control in healthy young adults 132. The following are correct embryological associations A Germ cells – wall of the yolk sac B Mullerian duct – female genital tract C Mullerian duct – Garner’s cyst D Genital tubercle – clitoris E Metanephros - kidneys 133. Regarding puberty A Pubarche – onset of pubic hair B Adrenarche – elevation of DHA and DHAS C Menarche – before breast growth D Ovulation – after menarche E Pubertal growth – 45% of final adult height 134. Regarding the menstrual cycle A Corpus luteum regulates the constant postovulatory interval B LH stimulates follicular development C The mean duration of LH surge is 24 hours D The preceded increase of progesterone initiates LH surge E The raised level of progesterone 36 hours after LH surge indicates ovulation 135. Regarding the menopause A Climacteric is the first year of menopause B Average age of menopause in Asian women is 50.7 years C High levels of FSH result in the loss of follicular reserve D Sole primary phenomenon is decrease in ovulatory follicle production of oestrogen E There is a primary increase of FSH 136. Regarding mycology A The fungus is dimorphic B The yeast is a non-facultative organism C Biopsies are not useful for laboratory investigations D Tricophytons causes subcutaneous infection E Phyconicosis is a systemic infection related with immune suppressed patient 137. The following condition causes a rise in prolactin level A Exercise B Pain C Puerperium D Naloxone E Renal failure - 20 -
  21. 21. 138. In left ventricular heart failure A There is often peripheral vasodilatation B Salt and water retention is common C There is a tendency towards oedema in the feet and legs when standing D Cardiac glycosides may produce a diuresis E Left ventricular end diastolic pressure is reduced 139. In the process of blood coagulation A Prothrombin II is converted to thrombin IIa by platelet factor 3 B The role of thrombin is confined to the conversion of fibrinogen I to fibrin Ia C The initiating stimulus activates factor XII D The initiating stimulus may elevate plasma factor III levels E Defects in the final stages may be assessed by addition of thrombin to plasma 140. The following tissues are likely to regenerate following damage: A Cereberal cortex B Myocardium C Bone D Liver E Spinal cord 141. Granulation tissue A Contains fibroblasts B Always contain granulomas C Often occurs after acute short-lived injury to the liver D Contains thin-walled capillaries E Actively contracts 142. The following factors will delay healing of a bony fracture A Stabilisation B Infection C Malalignment D Interposed soft tissue E Paget’s disease of bone 143. In cell death by apoptosis A Cell membrane integrity is lost B Death of contiguous cell groups occurs C An inflammatory response is usual D There is energy-dependant fragmentation of DNA by endogenous endonucleases E Lysosome leak lytic enzymes 144. Phenylketonuria A May be detected using the Guthrie test B Is due to a deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase C Is characterized by hyperpigmentation of the skin D Occurs in 1:1000 infants in Britain E Is characterized by mental retardation - 21 -
  22. 22. 145. Dystrophic calcification A May occur in the absence of any derangement of calcium metabolism B May result in the formation of psammoma bodies C Is associated with hyperparathyroidism D Is associated with the ingestion of large amounts of milk E May lead to heterotopic bone formation 146. The following organisms characterictically induce a granulomatous inflammatory response A Mycobacterium tuberculosis B Staphylococcus Aureus C Treponema pallidum D Mycobacterium leprae E Streptococcus pneumoniae 147. Examples of aneuploidy are seen in patients suffering from: A Klinefelter’s syndrome B Cystic fibrosis C Edward’s syndrome D Huntington’s chorea E G6PD deficiency 148. The following statements is/ are true of carbohydrate metabolism A There is an increased rate of absorption of glucose in pregnancy B During mid and late pregnancy there is progressive rise in plasma insulin C The production of lactate from glucose or glycogen is dependent upon the presence of oxygen D Muscle glycogen is the main source of blood glucose E The fasting blood glucose concentration in pregnancy is greater than in the nonpregnant state 149. Chylomicrons A Are the lightest of the lipoproteins B Are not present in fasting plasma in a normal individual C Are rich in triacylglycerol D Are metabolized in the liver E Impart milkiness to the plasma if present in large numbers 150. Regarding glucose A Main organ of glucogenolysis in the muscles B Is not found in plants C The hexokinase is important for gluconeogenesis D Fructose-1,6-PIP is only found in the liver E Insulin inhibits lipolysis of adipose tissue - 22 -

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