The document contains 71 multiple choice questions related to anatomy of the pelvis and pelvic organs. The questions cover topics like bones and walls of the pelvis, muscles of the pelvic floor and wall, blood vessels and nerves of the pelvis, organs in the male and female pelvis including uterus, ovaries and fallopian tubes, and anatomy of the mammary glands.
2. MCQ
1. Concerning the false pelvis the
true statement is :
a. It is the lesser pelvis
b. It has a complete bony
boundary
c. It is separated from the true
pelvis by the pelvic inlet
d. It lies below the plane of
pelvic inlet
2. All the following are true about
the lesser pelvis except
a. Has a cavity, an inlet, and an
outlet
b. Lies below the plane of pelvic
inlet
c. Has an incomplete bony
boundary
d. Is called the true pelvis
3. Anterior boundary of pelvic
brim:
a. sacral ala
b. promontory of sacrum
c. upper border of symphysis
pubis
d. none of the above
4. Concerning male pelvis, all are
true except:
a. its inlet is circular
b. it is narrow
c. the acetabulum is wider than
female one
d. inverted ischial spine
5. Concerning female pelvis ,the
true statement is :
a. The pubic arch has an acute
angle
b. The ischial tuberosity is
everted
c. It is narrow
d. The acetubulum is wider than
male one
6. From anterior to posterior the
arrangement of female pelvic
viscera is:
a. Rectum, uterus and vagina,
urinary bladder
b. Urinary bladder, uterus and
vagina, rectum
c. Uterus, urinary bladder
rectum
d. Urinary bladder, rectum &
uterus
7. Rectovesical pouch:
a. Found in female pelvis
b. Found in male pelvis
c. Made by the peritoneum when
reflected to reach the middle
third of the rectum in male
d. B & C
8. Site of fluid collections in
female pelvic peritoneum:
a. rectovesical pouch
b. uterovesical pouch
c. recto-uterine pouch
d. none of the above
3. 9. All of the following are muscles
of the pelvic wall except:
a. Pyriformis
b. Obturator internus
c. Coccygeus
10. Piriformis muscle is inserted
into:
a. tip of greater trochanter of
femur
b. medial aspect of greater
trochanter of femur
c. white line
d. none of the above
11. The main action of pelvic
wall muscles is :
a. Lateral rotation of the thigh
b. Supporting of the pelvic
viscera
c. A & B
d. None of the above
12. Obturator internus muscle is
supplied by :
a. Sacral plexus
b. Nerve to obturator internus
c. Inferior rectal nerve
d. None of the above
13. Levator ani muscle
originating from:
a. White line of obturator fascia
b. Obturator membrane
c. Inner aspect of the sacrum
d. None of the above
14. Coccygeus muscle originating
from:
a. White line
b. Tip of ischial spine
c. Inner aspect of sacrum
d. None of the above
True or False:
15. Obturator foramen of
female pelvis is triangular:
a. True
b. False
16. Male ischial tuberosity is
everted:
a. True
b. False
17. Most posterior boundary of
the pelvic brim is arcuate line:
a. True
b. False
18. 18.Piriformis is supplied by
ventral rami of S3,4:
a. True
b. False
19. 19.Levator ani decrease the
intra-abdominal pressure:
a. True
b. False
20. 20.Levator ani is supplied
by ventral rami of S3,4
together with superior rectal
nerve:
a. True
b. False
4. 21. The following are branches
of the sacral plexus except:
a. Pudendal nerve
b. Superior gluteal nerve
c. Inferior gluteal nerve
d. Lateral cutaneous nerve of
the thigh
e. Posterior cutaneous nerve of
the thigh
22. Concerning the arteries of
the pelvis all are true except;
a. Posterior trunk of the internal
iliac artery gives the superior
gluteal artery
b. Anterior trunk of the internal
iliac artery gives Two lateral
sacral arteries
c. Internal pudendal artery
arises from anterior division
of the internal iliac Artery
d. The proximal part of the
umbilical artery gives the
superior vesical artery
23. Regarding the arteries of
the pelvis all are true except:
a. The median sacral artery ends
as glomus coccygeum
b. The internal iliac artery
terminates at the upper
border of greater sciatic
foramen
c. The inferior gluteal artery
passes through the greater
sciatic notch below piriforms
muscle
d. Middle rectal artery is the
highest branch of the anterior
division of the IIA.
24. The following are branches
of the anterior division of the
internal iliac artery except:
a. Obturator artery
b. Internal pudendal artery
c. Inferior vesical artery
d. Superior gluteal artery
e. Umbilical artery
25. The following are branches
of the internal iliac artery
except:
a. Pudendal artery
b. Superior vesical artery
c. Median sacral artery
d. Inferior gluteal artery
26. Obturator internus muscle
receives its nerve supply from :
a. Obturator nerve
b. Pudendal nerve
c. Pudendal nerve and perineal
branch of s4
d. None of the above
27. Concerning the PELVIC
FASCIA all of the following
statements are true except:
a. The Superior fascia of pelvic
diaphragm covers the superior
surface of levator ani.
b. Obturator fascia is thickened
forming the white line
5. c. Tough and membranous fascia
surrounds the rectum
d. the obturator muscle is
covered by obturator fascia
28. All of the following
statements about the internal
iliac artery are correct except:
a. It is the smaller one of the 2
terminal branches of the
common iliac artery
b. It is related Laterally to the
internal iliac vein & obturator
nerve
c. Middle rectal artery is a
branch of its anterior division
d. It begins at the level of
lumbosacral angle
29. Which of the following
arteries gives origin for the
artery of vas deferens
a. Inferior vesical artery
b. Middle rectal artery
c. Iliolumbar artery
d. Internal pudendal artery
e. None of the above
Match
30. It supplies the quadratus
lamborum muscles
a) Lateral sacral arteries
31. It supplies the seminal
vesicle
b) Umbilical artery
32. pass through the anterior
sacral foramina
c) Iliolumbar artery
33. It gives the superior
vesical artery to supply the
bladder
d) Superior gluteal artery
34. It descends between the 2
nervous structures
e) Middle rectal artery
35. Concerning the SACRAL
PLEXUS all of the following are
true except:
a. The root value of Pelvic
splanchnic nerve is (S2,3,4)
b. Nerve to Piriformis is one of the
dorsal branches of the plexus
roots
c. The two terminal branches are
the pudendal and gluteal nerves
d. It passes On posterior pelvic
wall, in front of piriformis and
behind the parietal pelvic fascia
6. 36. The anterior boundary of
the perineum is formed by 2
ischial tuberosities
a. true
b. false
37. Concerning the PELVIC PART
OF SYMPATHETIC TRUNK
which of the following
statements is correct
a. Enters the pelvis by crossing the
front of ala of the sacrum..
b. Each trunk ( rt and lt) has 4
sacral ganglia.
c. It gives Branches to inferior
hypogastric plexus.
d. It gives Vascular branches to the
arteries of: perineum & lower
limb.
e. All of the above
38. The cervix is connected to the
Uterus by …..
a. External OS
b. Internal OS
c. Isthmus
d. None of the above
39. All the following are true
about uterus …..
a. RVF position
b. EVF position
c. They are separated gall
bladder by Douglas pouch
d. All of the above
40. All the following are lateral
to body of the uterus except …..
a. Broad ligament
b. Lateral Ligament
c. Uterine artery
d. Ureteral artery
41. Which of the following is
true about the cervix ……?
a. It’s not imbedded totally in
the vagus
b. Its superior part is attached
to the Broad ligament
c. It’s internal part opened to
the vagus by The external OS
d. All of the above
42. Which is the ligament is
responsible for the AVF position
…...
a. Broad ligament
b. Ovarian ligament
c. Round ligament
d. None of the above
43. Which ligament connects the
infundibulum to the pelvic wall …..
a. Round ligament
b. Mesovirium
c. Myometrium
d. Suspensor ligament
7. 44. The posterior superior
surface of the broad ligament is
attached to ……
a. Uterine tube
b. Ovary
c. Uterus
d. None of the above
45. All of the following are
contained of the broad ligament
except …..
a. Ligament of the Ovary
b. Uterine artery
c. Suspensor ligament
d. Uterine tube
46. All the following are
supporting factors of the uterus
except …..
a. Levator ani
b. Organs surrounding it
c. Ilacus muscle
d. Perineal body
47. Which of the following are
true about uterine
a. It’s from the posterior
division of posterior iliac
artery
b. It cross the ureteral artery
at the level of the cervix
c. It’s not anastomosed with
another artery along its
course
d. All of the above
48. All of the following are the
content of erogenital triangle
except :
a. Superfial perineal pouch
b. Anal canal
c. Urethera
d. External genital organs
49. Sacrotuberous ligment
connect between :
a. Pubic arch & ischial tuberosity
b. Two ischial tuberoste
c. Coccyx & pubic arch
d. Coccyx & ischial tubersity
50. Which of the following isn"t
piearcing the perineal membrane
in female?
a. Urethra
b. Vagina
c. External pudendal artery
d. Artery of the bulb
51. Superfial perinal pouch lies
between
a. Prineal body & membranes layer
of perineum
b. Prineal membrane & membranes
layer of perineum
c. Pelvic fascia & membranes layer
of the perineum
d. Pelvic fascia & prineal membrane
8. 52. One the following isn’t a
content of prineal pouch in female
a. Clitoris
b. Utriene artery
c. Deep dorsal vein of clitoris
d. Labial nerve
53. Greater vestibular gland is
found in :
1. Superfial perineal pouch
2. Deep peroneal pouch
3. Perineal membrane
4. Pubic arch
54. Deep perineal pouch lies
between
a. Perineal body & membranes layer
of perineum
b. Pelvic fascia & perineal membrane
c. Membrane layer of perineum &
perinal membrane
d. Pelvic fascia & perineal body
55. One of the following isn't a
content of deep perineal pouch
a. Dorsal nerve of clitoris
b. Sphincter urethrae muscle
c. Libal nerve
d. Internal pudenal artery
56. Which of the following isn't
correct about prineal body?
a. Lies between vaginal & urther
orifice
b. Serves for attachment of 10
perineal muscles
c. Its injury leads to pelvic oragn
prolapse
d. Lies in the centre of perineum
57. Concerning the uterine tube
all of the following are correct
except:
a. It extends from cornua of uterus
to peritoneal cavity near the
uterus
b. The ampulla is its widest and
longest part
c. Margins contain fimbriae to pick
the fertilized ovum
d. It is drained into paraaortic
lymph nodes
58. Concerning the blood supply
of the fallopian tube which of
the following is correct
a. Its lateral part is supplied by a
branch of the internal iliac artery
b. Its lateral part is drained into
pampinoform venous plexus
c. Its medial part is supplied by
ovarian artery
d. It is drained into ovarian and
uterine veins
59. The following statements
concerning the ovary all are
true except:
a. The right ovarian vein drains into
the inferior venacava
b. It is attached to the lateral
pelvic wall by the round ligament
of the ovary
9. c. It ovulates an ovum into the
peritoneal cavity
d. It is related posteriorly to the
ureter
60. In The following statements
concerning the ovary, all are
incorrect except:
a. The ovarian fossa is present
at the level of the anterior
inferior iliac spine
b. It is related medialy to the
obturator nerve
c. The ovarian ligament is
attached to the uterus in
front of the fallopian tube
d. It is connected by the
mesovarium to the broad
ligament
61. Which of the following
statements about the
suspensory ligament is correct?
a. It connects the uterine end of
the ovary to the uterus
b. It connects the anterior border
of the ovary to the upper layer
of broad ligament
c. It contains the ovarian vessels
and nerves
d. It contains the obturator nerve
and vessels
62. Concerning the left ovary
which of the following
statement is incorrect
a. Its blood supply originates mainly
from a branch of the abdominal
aorta
b. The left ovarian vein drains into
the left renal vein
c. Receives parasympathetic nerve
supply from the superior
hypogastric plexus
d. Covered completely by
peritoneum except at the
anterior border
63. Mammary glands secretes in
a. Blood
b. Ducts
c. Both of them
d. None of the above
64. Mammary glands are
embedded in :
a. Deep fascia of pectrol region
b. Superfial fascia of pectrol
region
c. Superfial fascia of axiallry
region
d. Deep fascia of axiallry region
65. Mammary glands reach the
max. size in all such cases
except :
a. Preganancy
b. Lactation
c. Menopause
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
10. 66. The future nipple is :
a. Lactiferous duct
b. Epithelial pit
c. Small buds
d. Solid cords
67. The individual variation of
the breast isn't included :
a. Sex
b. Age
c. Body weight
d. Location of the base
68. All of these muscles forming
base of the mammary gland
except :
a. Serratus anterior
b. Sterno mastoid
c. Pectoralis major
d. External oblique muscle
69. The axiallry tail has the
following except :
a. Extention into axilla
b. Pierce deep fascia
c. Extention upward to the
medial
d. None of the above
70. The nipple has all of
the properties except :
a. Many papillae
b. Surrounded by areola
c. Opposite 4th
or 5th
intercostals space
d. Surrounded by cords & buds
71. Lactiferous duct is :
a. CT septa separted between
each lobe
b. Suspensory ligment
c. Open in the sumnit of the
nipple
d. None of the above
72. All of following are
arterial supply except :
a. Internal thoracic artery
b. Axillary artery
c. posterior & intercostals
arteries
d. Anterior intercostals artery
73. All of the following
are deep lympathtic
drainage except :
a. Axillary lymph nodes
b. Sab areolar lymph node
c. Internal mammary
d. Sub – peritoneal
11. True or false:
74- Mammary gland has a capsule
75- Mammary gland are modified sebaceous gland
76- The location of the apex of the gland is constant
77- Lymphatic drainage of the central part of the breast by
apical axillary
78- Invasion to suspensory ligment leads to fixation of the breast
79- Invasion of lactiferous duct leads to inverted nipple
80. Rearrange the embryological profilation of mammary gland:
1- Depression of localized fat deposition area
2- 15 – 20 cords
3- Extention from forelimb hindlimb
4- Mammary line
5- Buds
6- Lactiferous ducts
7- Disappearance of the ridges
81. All the following are true
about ovarian cycle except:
a. It occurs in rhythmic
change.
b. It occurs is related to
FSH, LH hormone.
c. The progesterone is
secreted only in last phase.
d. It occurs every 28 days
82.Graffian follicles are formed at
any stage:
a. Ovulation stage
b. Oestrogen stage
c. Luteal stage
83.Expel of ovum from follicle is
occurred in any stage:
a. Ovulation stage.
b. Follicular stage.
c. Luteal stage.
84.The main hormone responsible
for ovulation stage is:
a. Progesterone.
b. Estrogen.
c. LH.
d. All the above.
12. 85.Which is true about the luteal
stage:
a. Increase secretion of LH
responsible for
degradation of corpus
luteum.
b. The origin of corpus
luteum is granulosa cell.
c. LH, FSH are increased at
the end of this cycle.
d. A & C
86.Which is true about granulosa
cell:
a. It’s the embryonic origin
of the follicle
b. Responsible for ovum
nourishment.
c. Give the luteum cell.
d. A, B
87.Which is true about LH:
a. Its secretion is increased
markedly at the ovulation
stage.
b. Its secretion is decreased
at the last stage of the
luteal stage.
c. It’s responsible for
formation of lutein cell.
d. All the above
88.The poliferative phase of
the endometrial cycle
corresponds to the luteal
phase of the ovarian cycle
a. True
b. False
89. The poliferative phase of the
endometrial cycle is dependent
on ……. hormone
a. Estrogen
b. Progesterone
c. Inhibin
d. None of the above
90.During the first 2 weeks of the
sexual cycle and under the
influence of estrogen , all of
the following changes occur
except
a. Proliferation of basal ends of
the uterine glands
b. Proliferation of C.T of lamina
propria of endometrium
c. Increase blood supply
d. Glands begin to accumulate
glycogen
91.All of the following are true
about the secretory phase of
the endometrial cycle except
a. Occurs during the 2nd
half of
the sexual cycle
b. Corresponds to the estrogenic
phase of the ovarian cycle
c. Starts after ovulation
d. Depends upon the formation
of corpus luteum
92.During the secretory phase of
the endometrial cycle ,
progesterone cause slight
additional cellular proliferation
in the endometrium
a. True
b. False
13. 93.The uterine glands appear
straight with narrow lumen and
their cells begin to accumulate
glycogen in secretory phase of
the endometrial cycle
a. True
b. False
94.About the 26th day of
endometrial cycle , the blood
level of …….. sharply decreased
a. Estrogen
b. Progesterone
c. Inhibin
d. All of the following
95.If fertilization of the ovum
does not occur , all of the
following changes occur except
a. Increase hormonal support to
the endometrium
b. Spasm of blood vessels by
prostaglandins
c. Necrosis of the endometrium
d. Desquamation of the
superficial layers of the
endometrium
96.All of the following are true
regarding to anovulatory cycle
except
a. Occur when ovulation fails
b. High LH secretion
c. Failure of development of
corpus luteum
d. No progesterone secretion
97.Anovulatory cycle always occur
when fertilization of the ovum
does not occur
a. True
b. False
98.Concerning estrogen,all true
except:
a. Causes natriuresis in large
doses
b. Helps endometrial
proliferation
c. Helps uterine contractions
d. Growth of the sexual organs
99.Helping labor:
a. Progesterone
b. Estrogen
c. Oxitocin
d. B & C
100. The true statement about
estrogen is :
a. promotes development of the
lobules and alveoli of the
breasts
b. promotes secretory changes in
the mucosal lining of the
fallopian tubes
c. causes the skin to be hard and
tough
d. promotes development of duct
system of the breast
14. 101. The false statement about
estrogen hormone is:
a. it increases osteoclastic
activity
b. it causes salt and water
retention
c. it helps growth of the sex
organs
d. it causes proliferation of the
endometrium
102. Progesterone:
a. responsible for the
prolifrative changes in the
endometrium
b. causes salt and water
retention
c. promotes development of
lobules and alveoli of the
breast
d. none of the above
103. During menopause:
a. ovulation fails to occur during
many of the cycles
b. FSH and LH are produced in large
and continuous quantities
c. There is no effect on
physiological functions of the
body
d. A & B
104. Estrogen causes delay in
fusion of the epiphyses of the
bones with the shafts:
a. true
b. false
105. progesterone helps uterine
contraction:
a. true
b. false
106. In large doses estrogen
causes natriuresis:
a. true
b. false
107. Progesterone has a mild
catabolic effect on proteins
during pregnancy:
a. true
b. false
108. Action HCG- Hormone
resembles :
a. LH
b. FSH
c. Progestrone
d. Estrogene
109. Relaxation of pelvic
ligaments is done by :
a. Progestrone
b. Estrogene
c. FSH
d. HCG hormone
110. Development of Zygote is
enhanced by :
a. Estrogene
b. LH
c. Progestrone
d. FSH
15. 111. Which hormone is
coincidently produced after
formation of trophoblasts :
a. Estrogene
b. Progestrone
c. LH
d. HCG hormone
112. All of the following is true
about HCSM hormone except :
a. Resembles action of GH
strongly
b. Acts like prolactin
c. Fat Mobilization
d. Hyperglycemic
113. Myometrial contractions
decrease and pelvic ligaments
relaxations are both done by :
a. Relaxin
b. Estrogene
c. Progestrone
d. LH
114. All of the following is
increased during pregnancy
except :
a. GH
b. Thyroid hormone
c. Corticosteroids
d. PTH
115. All of the following have
contribution to the mammary
gland except :
a. Glucocorticoids
b. Thyroid hormone
c. Progestrone
d. Estrogene
116. Maternal insulin sensitivity in
pregnant :
a. Increases
b. Decreases
117. Which of the following
stimulates milk ejection :
a. Oxytocin
b. Prolactin
c. Chronic Somatomammotropin
d. None of the above
118. Uterine wall is formed of:
a. Endometrium.
b. Myometrium.
c. Perimetrium.
d. All of the above.
119. Myometrium in the uterine
wall corresponds to:
a. Musculosa.
b. Serosa.
c. Mucosa.
d. None of the above.
16. 120. All of the following
concerning Endometrium of
uterine wall is true except:
a. Consists of partially
ciliated columnar
epithelium.
b. It is functionally divided
into superficial layer and
basal layer.
c. It is composed of bundles
of smooth muscle fibers
separated by C.T.
d. Its lamina propria contains
simple tubular glands that
tend to branch towards
their deeper portions.
121. One of the following layers
is the thickest layer of the
Myometrium:
a. Vascular layer.
b. Supravascular layer.
c. Subserosal layer.
d. None of the above.
122. Vaginal part of the cervix is
lined by:
a. Simple partially ciliated
columnar epithelium.
b. Non-keratinized stratified
squamous epithelium.
c. Partially ciliated
pseudostratified columnar
epithelium.
d. None of the above.
123. Superficial functional layer
of the Endometrium in
comparison with the basal
resting layer is:
a. Supplied by Straight
arteries.
b. Not shed during
menstruation.
c. Supplied by coiled arteries.
d. Serves for regeneration
and repair of the resting
layer.
124. One of the following
regarding Perimetrium of the
uterus is true:
a. Formed of partially ciliated
columnar epithelium
supported by highly
cellular lamina propria.
b. Composed of bundles of
smooth muscle fibers
separated by C.T.
c. It is formed of circularly
arranged smooth muscle
fibers.
d. Formed of C.T covered at
certain areas by
mesothelial cells.
125. Regarding the ovary, both
its cortex and medulla are
separated with a clear line of
demarcation:
a. True
b. False
126. According to update theories
the germinal epithelium of the
ovary is the origin of the
primordial germ cells:
a. True.
b. False.
17. 127. Regarding the germinal
epithelium layer of the ovary,
all of the following are true
except:
a. It is formed of flat
squamous cells before
puberty.
b. It is formed of low
cuboidal epithelium after
puberty.
c. Immediatley underneath it
lies the Tunica albuginea.
d. It is the source of
primordial germ cells in the
ovary.
128. All of the following are
components of the ovarian
medulla except:
a. Ovarian follicles.
b. Blood vessels.
c. Lymphatics.
d. None of the above.
129. Before puberty growth and
division of the 1ry oocyte are
arrested at their:
a. Metaphase of meiotic
division.
b. Telophase of meiotic
division.
c. Prophase of meiotic
division.
d. Anaphase of meiotic
division.
130. Regarding the morphology of
the primordial follicle, all of
the following are true except:
a. Large spherical cell.
b. Has eccentric nuclei with
prominent nucleuolus
c. Cytoplasm is scant with
abundant organelles.
d. Morphology of the
endoplasmic reticulum is
different according to
stage of development.
131. At birth one of the following
follicles is the only one present
in the ovary:
a. Graphian follicle.
b. Primordial follicle.
c. 1ry follicle.
d. 2ry growing follicle.
132. Transition from a primordial
follicle to a 1ry follicle involves
all of the following changes
except:
a. Oocyte grows larger and
there is noticeable
increase in its organelles.
b. Stromal cells become more
densely packed forming
theca interna.
c. Follicular cells lose their
squamous configuration
d. Zona pellucid is secreted
by oocyte and granulose
cells to a lesser extent.
133. Follicular antrum occurs for
the first time in one of the
following follicles:
a. 1ry follicle
b. 2ry growing follicle
c. Mature graphian follicle
d. None of the above.
18. 134. In the uterine wall , the
endometrium histologically
corresponding to
a. Serosa
b. Mucosa
c. Musculosa
d. Submucosa
135. Serosal layer is represented
in the uterine wall by …
a. Endometrium
b. Myometrium
c. Perimetrium
d. Non of the above
136. All of the following are
components of endometrium
except
a. Ciliated columnar epithelium
b. Highly cellular lamina propria
c. Mesothelial cells
d. Simple tubular gland
137. All of the following are true
about functional layer of
endometrium except
a. Shed during menstruation
b. Monthly renewed
c. Superficial
d. Supplied by straight arteries
138. ………… is not one of the
layers of myometrium
a. Basal resting layer
b. Submucosal layer
c. Vascular layer
d. Subserosal layer
139. ……… is the thin layer of
myometrium and is formed of
circularly arranged smooth
muscle fibers
a. Basal resting layer
b. Submucosal layer
c. supravascular layer
d. Subserosal layer
140. …….. is the outer layer of
the uterine wall and is formed
of C.T covered at certain areas
by mesothelial cells
a. Endometrium
b. Myometrium
c. Perimetrium
d. Non of the above
141. the layers of myometrium
are well separated from each
other
a. true
b. false
142. 9. The supravaginal part of
the cervix is lined by non
keratinized stratified squamous
epithelium
a. True
b. False
143. The lamina propria of the
cervix contains simple tubular
glands that proliferate and
secrete more viscid and
abundant mucus
a. True
b. False
19. 144. ………………. Is the organ
composed of cells derived from
two individuals?
a. Placenta
b. Ovary
c. Uterus
d. None of the above
145. ………………. Is the site of
exchange of substance between
fetal and maternal blood:
a. Chorion
b. Deciduas basalis
c. Intervellous spaces
d. None of the above
146. Regarding chorionic villus all
of the following is true except:
a. It is composed of a core of
CT derived from
intraembryonic
mesenchyme.
b. It contains the fetal blood
vessels.
c. It is surrounded by
cytotrophoblast and
syncytiotrophoblast.
d. It is embedded within
deciduas basalis.
147. The syncytiotrophoblast
disappear gradually during
second half of pregnancy.
a. True
b. False
148. The surface of chorion is
surrounded with maternal blood
in lacunae:
a. True
b. False
149. regarding the fetal part of
the placenta all is true except:
a. It consists of chorion.
b. It has chorionic plate at
the point where the
choronic villus to invade
deciduas bsalis.
c. Chorionic villus is composed
of CT derived from extra
embryonic embryonic
mesenchym .
d. None of the above.
150. The maternal part of
placenta is the modified decidua
destalis in which embryo is
implanted.
a. True
b. False
151. The decidual reaction
includes :
a. Formation of decidual cells
b. Congestion and dilatation
of endometrial capillaries
c. Enlargement of stromal
cells and accumulation of
lipid and glycogen droplets
in the cytoplasm.
d. All of the above
20. 152. Irregular sinusoids are
formed as a part of decidual
reaction in the maternal part of
the placenta
a. True
b. False
153. The intervellous space is the
site of contact in between
maternal and fetal blood
a. True
b. False
154. …………..is the site of
exchange of gases .nutrient and
waste products between fetal
and maternal blood.
a. Intervellous space
b. Irregular sinusoids
c. Blood placental barriers
d. None of the above
155. All of the following are
components of blood placental
barrier at the second half of
pregnancy except:
a. Endothelial lining
b. Basement membrane of
endothelial cells
c. Fetal CT of the core of
villus
d. Cytotrophoblast cells
156. The placenta is prmeable to
CO2, H2O,hormone and waste
products from maternal to fetal
blood.
a. True
b. False
157. All hormones secreted by
the placenta are synthesized by
a. Cytotrophoblast
b. Syncytiotrophoblast
c. Decidual cells
d. None of the above
158. Surface epithelium of
mucosal layer of the vagina is :
a. Tall columnar
b. Non keratinized stratified
squamous
c. Low cuboidal
d. None of the above
159. Vaginal epithelium appears
vacuolated in H&E preparation
is due to presence of large
amount of :
a. Lipid
b. Glycogen
c. Fluid accumulation
d. None of the above
160. Low PH of the vagina is due
to presence of :
a. Pyravic acid
b. Lactic acid
c. Glycogen
d. None of the above
161. Lamina propria of vagina is
formed of all of the following
except:
a. Loose CT rich in blood
capillaries
b. Elastic fibers
c. Lymphocytes and
neutrophils
d. Vaginal glands
21. 162. Mucosa found in vaginal
lumen comes from :
a. Vaginal glands
b. Uterus
c. Cervix
d. None of the above
163. The muscular layer of
vagina is formed of:
a. Longitudinally arranged
b. Circularly arranged
c. Interlacing bundles
d. None of the above
164. The orifice is surrounded by
smooth muscle fibers:
a. True
b. False
165. Regarding clitoris all of the
following is true except :
a. It is rudimentary
incomplete penis
b. It is formed of 2 erectile
bodies
c. Erectile bodies end in a
rudimentary gland
clitoridis
d. It is covered by simple
columnar epithelium
166. Regarding libia minora all of
the following is true except:
a. It is 2 folds of skin with
CT core
b. CT core is mainly formed
of elastic fibers
c. The covering epithelium is
simple squamous covered
by thin layer of keratin
d. Sebaceous and sweet
glands are present in CT
core
167. Labia minora contains large
amount of adipose tissue, thin
layer of smooth muscle fibers.
a. True
b. False
168. The inner surface of labia
majora has the same
histological structure of labia
minora.
a. True
b. False
169. The external ganitalia are
supplied by numerous sensory
nerve endings.
a. True
b. False
170. All of the following are true
about the mammary gland
except
a. Compound
b. Tubulo- alveolar gland
c. Apocrine pattern of
secretion
d. Eccrine pattern of
secretion
171. Like any glandular tissue ,
mammary gland is formed of
stroma that has a capsule
a. True
b. False
22. 172. The stroma of the mammary
gland is composed of highly
cellular loose C.T that arises
from
a. Reticular layer of
epidermis
b. Papillary layer of dermis
c. epidermis
d. Hypodermis
173. The stroma of the mammary
gland is composed of all of the
following cells except
a. Fibroblasts
b. Macrophages
c. Monocytes
d. Lymphocytes
174. In the resting mammary
gland , the parenchyma is
formed of duct system and
secretory units
a. True
b. False
175. The lactiferous duct in
mammary gland and its dilated
sinus are lined by
a. Cuboidal cells
b. Columnar cells
c. Stratified squamous
epithelium
d. Tall pyramidal cells
176. All of the following are true
regarding to female mammary
gland during childhood except
a. Rudimentary
b. Few ducts
c. Ducts Lined by columnar
cells
d. Small amount of C.T
177. The female mammary gland
at puberty develop by the
effects of estrogen and
progesterone only
a. True
b. False
178. All of the following are the
effects of estrogen on female
mammary gland at puberty
except
a. Development of secretory
characteristics of cells in
alveoli
b. Proliferation of ducts
c. Development of nipple
d. Deposition of fats
179. No histological changes occur
in the mammary glands during
menstrual cycle
a. True
b. False
23. 180. During pregnancy , all of the
following changes occur in the
mammary glands except
a. Stroma and adipose tissue
increase
b. Massive growth of the
gland
c. Appear of many secretory
acini
d. Formation of colostrums
181. During pregnancy , each
secretory alveolus consists of a
simple columnar epithelium with
associated myoepithelial cells
a. True
b. False
182. In lactating mammary gland
, different different stages of
activity of alveoli can be seen
in each lobe
a. True
b. False
183. …….. doesn’t occur in female
mammary glands during
lactation
a. Lobules acquire distended
appearance
b. Thickening of interlobular
C.T
c. Alveoli are present in
different stages of
activity
d. Each acinus surrounded by
myoepithelial cells
184. In menopause , reduction of
size of mammary gland as
result of atrophy of its
secretion portion only
a. True
b. False
185. Incidence of
Endocervical Polyp in adult
women is :
a. 2%
b. 10 %
c. 20 %
d. 50 %
186. All of the following is
true about endocrevical
polyp except :
a. Smooth
b. Irregular boundries
c. May Portrude to the os
d. Inflamation occurs
187. Origin of sarcoma is :
a. Epithelial
b. Mesenchymal
c. None of the above
188. Period of occurrence
of Carcinoma In Situ before
Invasive is :
a. 5 years
b. 10 years
c. 15 years
d. 20 years
24. 189. All of the following
are risk factors of cervical
carcinoma except :
a. Genetic factors
b. HSV II
c. HPV
d. Male circumcision
190. Which of the following
is true?
a. CIN II involves whole
thickness of the cervix
b. Basal membrane in CIN
III is disrupted
c. CIN begins at squamo-
columnar junction
d. Association of CIN with
HSV I
191. All of the following
are true except :
a. In CIN III dysplastic
changes involve the
whole wall
b. Basement membrane is
intact
c. Detected by colposcopy
d. Mass is seen
192. Which is the most
common?
a. Fungating ICC
b. Malignant ICC
c. Infiltrative ICC
d. All are the same
193. The poorest
differentiated is :
a. Keratinized Large
squamous cell carcinoma
b. Non keratinized Large
squamous cell carcinoma
c. Small squamous cell
carcinoma
d. None of the above
194. Spreading to the
uterus causes
a. Endometrial
Hyperplesia
b. Pyometria
c. Pneumometria
d. Infertility
195. Spreading of ICC to
bone is :
a. Haematologic
b. Lymphatic
c. Local
196. Which stage in which
Carcinoma is confined to the
cervix:
a. Stage IV
b. Stage I
c. Stage II
d. Stage III
25. 197. Death may occur in
case of the following except
a. Association with renal
failure
b. Hemorrhage
c. Stage IV of ICC
d. CIN III
198. Cysts are lined by
granulosa-thea cells in
a- Follicule cyst
b- Luteal cyst
c- Both A& B
d- None of the above
199. Which of the following
cysts is normally present in
ovaries
a- Follicular cysts
b- Luteal cyst
c- Chocolate cyst
d- Polycystic ovarian synd.
200. In which cyst if
ruptured causing
hemorrhage& acute abdomen
pain
a- Luteal cyst
b- Chochalate
c- Both A& B
d- None of the above
201. Psammoma bodies are
present :
a- Serous cyst adenoma
b- Mucinous cyst
adenocarcinoma
c- Serous cyst
adenocarcinoma
d- Mucious cyst adenoma
202. Atypia of tumour cells
shows in :
a- Cyst adenoma
b- Cyst adeno carcinoma
c- Border line tumour
203. Which of the folloeing
shows mainly bilateral
activity :
a- Serous
b- Mucious
c- Germ cells
d- Sex cords stromal tumour
204. Complication of
mucinous cyst
adenocarcinoma :
a- Acute abdomen
hemorrhage
b- Metatize to other oragns
c- Pseudomyxoma peritonei
d- Krukenberg's tumour
26. 205. All of the following
are true about follicular
cysts except
a. Non neoplastic
b. Functional
c. Lined by luteal cells
d. Single or multiple
206. The follicular cells are
lined microscopically by
a. Granulose theca cells
b. Luteal cells
c. stratified squamous
epithelium
d. fibrous tissue
207. Immediate sealing of a
corpus hemorrhagicum may
result in
a. follicular cyst
b. luteal cyst
c. polycystic ovary
d. none of the above
208. All of the following
are true related to
polycystic ovaries except
a. related to defect in the
hypothalamic control of
the pituitary
secretion
b. Hyperplasia of luteinized
thecainterna cells
c. Cyst walls are lined by
granulosa- theca cells
d. Presence of many corpora
lutea
209. oligomenorrhea or
amenorrhea, hirsutism,
obesity, and infertility .all
of these symptoms can
appear in patient with
a. follicular cyst
b. luteal cyst
c. polycystic ovary
d. none of the above
210. Due to endometriosis
of the ovary & because of
repeated hemorrhage which
occurs every month blood
accumulates and forms a
cyst called
a. Luteal cyst
b. follicular cyst
c. chocolate cyst
d. polycystic ovary
211. Related to serous
tumors of ovary ..all of the
following are true except
a. Most are cystic
b. Common in ages between
20 – 50 years
c. Never being malignant
d. 60% are benign
212. Papillae are projecting
from the internal surface of
the cyst cavities. They are
more marked in benign
serous tumors of ovary
a. True
b. False
27. 213. All of the following
are features of Benign
serous cystadenomas except
a. Lined by tall columnar non
ciliated cells
b. Serosal covering is smooth
and glistening
c. papillae have delicate
fibrous cores
d. represents 60 % of serous
tumors
214. stratification of
epithelial cells and moderate
atypia of these cells with no
invasion of stroma may be
seen in case of
a. Benign serous
cystadenomas
b. Borderline tumors
c. Serous
cystadenocarcinomas
d. Non of the above
215. Serous
cystadenocarcinomas are
characterized by all of the
following except
a. Presence of complex
papillae
b. Presence of psammoma
bodies.
c. No obvious invasion of the
stroma.
d. Marked anaplasia of the
lining epithelium.
216. ……… are lined by a
single layer of tall columnar
non ciliated epithelium with
apical vacuolation and basal
nuclei.
a. Serous
cystadenocarcinomas
b. Benign mucinous
cystadenomas
c. Mucinous
cystadenocarcinomas
d. Teratomas
217. Rupture or metastasis
of serous
cystadenocarcinomas and
serous tumors of low
malignant potential leads to
"pseudomyxoma peritonei"
a. False
b. True
218. ………. Is not one of
the germ cells tumors of the
ovary
a. Teratomas
b. Choriocarcinoma
c. Dysgerminoma
d. Fibrothecoma
219. As regard to
teratomas ..all of the
following are true about
dermoid cyst except
a. immature
b. Benign
c. Usually unilaterally
d. Common on the right side
28. 220. Sometimes benign
mature teratoma is solid and
is formed of benign looking
mature structures derived
from the 3 germ cell layers.
a. True
b. False
221. About 90 % of
dermoid cysts may undergo
malignant changes e.g.
squamous cell carcinoma
a. True
b. False
222. ……… characterized by
that the tumor is bulky,
solid, with areas of necrosis
and hemorrhage, Hair,
cartilage, bone or
calcification may be
present.
a. Mature benign teratoma
b. Immature malignant
teratoma
c. Monodermal teratoma
d. Non of the above
223. Grading of immature
teratoma depends on the
proportion of tissue
containing immature
neuroepithelium.
a. True
b. False
224. ……….. is composed of
mature thyroid tissue. It
might be associated with
hyperthyroidism.
a. Immature malignant
teratoma
b. Struma ovarii
c. Ovarian carcinoid
d. Dysgerminoma
225. All of the following
are true about
Dysgerminoma except
a. ovarian counterpart of
seminoma of the testis.
b. most commonly in young
age
c. bilateral
d. associated with gonadal
dysgenesis.
226. Choriocarcinoma in
ovary Similar to uterine
choriocarcianoma and
respond to chemotherapy
a. True
b. False
227. ……. is associated with
elevated serum levels of
alpha-feto protein
a. Dysgerminoma
b. Choriocarcinoma
c. Yolk sac tumor
d. Teratoma
228. …….. is not one of
the sex-cord stromal tumors
a. Thecoma
b. Sertoli- Leydig cell tumors
c. Dysgerminoma
d. Granulosa - theca cell
tumors
29. 229. Granulosa- theca cell
tumor secretes large
amounts of androgen leading
to musculinization of the
female.
a. True
b. False
230. Endometrial
hyperplasia and endometrial
carcinoma in adult females
may be result from
a. Thecoma
b. Sertoli- Leydig cell tumors
c. Dysgerminoma
d. Granulosa - theca cell tumors
231. About 40% of …… are
associated with hydrothorax
(usually on the right side)
and ascitis leading to
"Meig's syndrome".
a. Sertoli- Leydig cell tumors
b. Fibroma
c. Thecoma
d. Granulosa - theca cell tumors
232. Small ovarian tumors
may be found incidentally
during pelvic examination,
radiography, or surgery.
a. True
b. False
233. Blood is the only
method for transmission of
ovarian tumors
a. True
b. False
234. All of the following
are true about krukenburg’s
tumor except
a. Bilateral
b. composed of mucin-
producing signet ring cells
c. spreading by transcoelomic
method.
d. Example of metastatic
urinary tract to the ovary
235. Endometrial
hyperplasia refers to one of
the following:
a. Increase number of glands in
relation to stroma.
b. Decrease number of glands in
relation to stroma.
c. Increase amount of stroma in
relation to glands.
d. None of the above.
236. One of the following
may cause endometrial
hyperplasia except:
a. Granulosa cell tumor.
b. Menopause.
c. Ovulatory cycle.
d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome.
237. Grades of endometrial
hyperplasia include:
a. High grade.
b. Intermediate grade.
c. Low grade.
d. Both a & c.
e. All of the above.
30. 238. Swiss cheese
appearance is morphology of
which of the following:
a. Simple endometrial
hyperplasia.
b. Adenomatous hyperplasia
without atypia.
c. Adenomatous hyperplasia with
atypia.
d. None of the above.
239. Scalloping and tufting
epithelium is a
characteristic of which of
the following:
a. Simple endometrial
hyperplasia
b. Complex endometrial
hyperplasia without atypia.
c. Complex endometrial
hyperplasia with atypia.
d. All of the above.
240. All of the following
are clinical features of
endometrial hyperplasia
except:
a. Thickening of the
Endometrium.
b. Excessive and irregular
bleeding.
c. Increase risk of endometrial
carcinoma.
d. None of the above.
241. All of the following
concerning benign
endometrial polyps is true
except:
a. They are localized
proliferations of the
Endometrium.
b. They appear as small sessile
masses that project into the
endometrial cavity.
c. They are one of the causes of
uterine bleeding.
d. Their malignant
transformation is very
common.
242. All are risk factors of
endometrial carcinoma
except:
a. Obesity.
b. Hypotension.
c. Diabetes mellitus.
d. Hyperestrinism.
243. True or False:
Hyperestrinism related endometrial
carcinoma is the most frequent type,
well differentiated and has bad
prognosis.
244. Carcinoma of the
corpus and cervix is
considered:
a. Stage I carcinoma.
b. Stage II carcinoma.
c. Stage III carcinoma.
d. Stage IV carcinoma.
31. 245. Creamy cervical mucus
is a clinical feature of which
of the following:
a. Endometrial carcinoma.
b. Benign endometrial polyps.
c. Fibromyoma.
d. Leiomyosarcoma.
246. Chromosomal
aberrations may play a role
in the etiology of which of
the following tumors:
a. Carcinoma.
b. Fibromyoma.
c. Benign endometrial polyps.
d. Leiomyosarcoma.
247. Concerning Fibromyoma
all of the following are true
except:
a. They are sharply
circumscribed and non-
encapsulated.
b. Their size may increase during
pregnancy.
c. Hyalinization is one of its
complications.
d. Malignant transformation of
Fibromyoma is very common.
248. Adenomyosis is :
a. presence of ectopic
functioning endometrial tissue
in the myometrium
b. presence of ectopic non-
functioning endometrial tissue
outside the uterus
c. presence of ectopic non-
functioning endometrial tissue
in the myometrium
d. none of the above
249. Presence of functioning
ectopic endometrial tissue
outside the uterus is known
as:
a. adenomyosis
b. leiomyoma
c. endometriosis
d. none of the above
250. Concerning
endometriosis,all true
except:
a. most common site is the
ovaries
b. the metaplastic theory
explains the extrapelvic or
intranodal endometrial
implants
c. dysmenorrhea is one of the
clinical features
d. it may form chocolate
cysts
251. All of the following
are complications of
endometriosis except:
a. thickening of the
endometrial wall
b. dysmenorrhea
c. dysparunia
d. dysuria
32. 252. Most common cause of
abnormal uterine bleeding:
a. leimyosarcoma
b. endometriosis
c. adenomyosis
d. fibromyoma
253. Concerning
leiomyoma,the false
statement is :
a. sharply circumscribed
,encapsulated firm mass
b. most common benign tumor
in women during
reproductive life
c. most common cause of
uterine bleeding
d. may cause infertility
254. Severe cases of
adenomyosis may lead to
menorrhagia:
a. true
b. false
255. Most common site for
endometriosis is the pelvic
peritoneum:
a. true
b. false
256. Most common cause of
abnormal uterine bleeding is
endometrial hyperplasia:
a. true
b. false
257. Fibroids could
transform into malignant
tumors:
a. true
b. false
258. all the following are
true about hydatidiform
mole of trophoplastic
disease except:
a. its benign.
b. embryonic parts seen in
complete mole.
c. may transformed to
malignat.
259. all the following are
true aboutcomplete mole of
hydatidiform mole of
trophoplastic disease
except:
a. painfull bleeding
b. b-increase the size of
uterus.
c. c-abortion
d. d-increaseHCG in the urine
260. Which is true about
partial mole:
a. all fetal parts are seen
b. some villi are edematous
c. no atypia
d. all the above
261. which is true about
invasive mole
a. It’s carcinoma in situ.
b. Responds to chemo therapy
c. Its metastatic
d. A& B
33. 262. which is true about
choriocarcinoma:
a. it arise from partial mole
b. contain chorionic villi
c. its highly senswitive to
chemotherapy.
d. all the above
263. which of the following
lead to uterine bleeding:
a. adeno myosis
b. choriocarcinoma
c. uterine polyp
d. all the above
264. All of the following
concerning acute mastitis
and breast abscess are true
except:
a. Occurs during early weeks
of nursing
b. Milk acts as a good medium
for multiplication of
organisms.
c. Streptococci causes
breast abscess wither
single or multiple.
d. There is diffuse
infiltration with acute
inflammatory cells.
265. Which of the following
is true concerning healing of
acute mastitis and breast
abscess:
a. The condition is treated by
surgical drainage and anti-
biotic therapy.
b. Resolution of infection
rarely leaves residual areas
of fibrosis.
c. If healing by fibrosis
occurs retraction of the
skin of the nipple may
occur.
d. All of the above.
266. Which of the following
is not a microscopic feature
of plasma cell mastitis:
a. Granular debris that
contains lipid-laden
macrophages.
b. Lymphocytes.
c. Plasma cells
d. Neutrophils
267. Which of the following
breast lesions should be put
in differential diagnosis with
a breast mass:
a. Granulamatous mastitis.
b. Acute mastitis
c. Fat necrosis
d. A and C
e. All of the above.
34. 268. One of the following
lesions mimic carcinomas of
the breast:
a. Mammary duct ectasia.
b. Granulamatous mastitis
c. Fat necrosis.
d. Breast abscess.
269. Trauma of the breast
can cause one of the
following lesions:
a. Galactocele.
b. Fat necrosis
c. Acute mastitis
d. Breast abscess.
270. Which of the following
is/are characteristics of
breast fibrocystic changes:
a. Dilatation of the terminal
ducts.
b. Increase in interlobular
and intralobular fibrous
tissue.
c. Epithelial proliferation in
the terminal ducts.
d. All of the above.
271. One of the following is
the main cause of non-
proliferative fibrocystic
changes of the breast:
a. Exaggeration and
distortion of cyclc breast
changes that occur in the
menstrual cycle.
b. Obstruction of the breast
ducts by inflammation and
fibrosis with accumulation
of milk.
c. Dilatation of the collecting
ducts in the subareolar
region.
d. Radiation therapy.
272. Which of the following
is not a microscopic change
of fibrocystic changes of
the breast:
a. Cyst formation
b. Fibrosis
c. Apocrine metaplasia.
d. None of the above.
273. One of the following
lesions of the breast is
associated with moderate
increase in the risk of
cancer breast:
a. Proliferative disease
without atypia.
b. Proliferative disease with
atypia.
c. Non-proliferative changes.
d. None of the above.
35. Match
279. All of The following
cause nipple discharge
except:
a. Intraductal papilloma
b. Ductal
papillomatosis(fibrocystic
changes)
c. Mammary duct ectasia
d. Phyllodes tumor
280. which of the following
statements about Phyllodes
tumor is correct:
a. Mostly it is a large lobulated
mass with leaf like clefts
b. The neoplastic element of the
tumor is the stroma
c. May be benign ,malignant ,may
recur or metastasize
d. Occurs at older age than does
fibroadenoma
e. All of the above
281. All of the following
are risk factors for breast
carcinoma except:
a. Treatment of osteoporosis by
Exogenous estrogen
b. Multiparity
c. Affection of 1st degree
relatives
d. Increased age
e. Benign proliferative breast
lesions
282. N. Gonohrrea is:
a. Gram negative cocus
b. Oxidase positive
c. Ferments glucose but
no maltose
d. Infecting mucous
membranes
e. All of the above
274. One cause of nipple discharge
275. Most common malignant tumor in
females
276. Most common benign tumor of the
breast
277. Most common malignant tumor of
female genital tract
278. Most common malignant tumor of
ovary
a) Phyllodes tumor
b) Intraductal papilloma
c) Cervical carcinoma
d) Serous cystadenocarcinomas
e) Fibroadenoma
f) Breast carcinoma
g) Mucinous cystadenocarcinomas
h) Endometrial carcinoma
36. 283. Concerning
N.Gonohrrea's culture, all
of the following statements
are true except:
a. They are fastidious.
b. There optimum
temperature of growth
is 37 degrees.
c. They need CO2 for
there growth.
d. Chocolate agar is
considered their
selective media.
284. The organism that is
the most prominent cause of
urethritis in female is:
a. Candida albicans
b. N. Gonohrrea
c. Escherichia coli
d. Treponema pallidum
285. The earliest symptom
of gonohrrea in female is:
a. Urethritis
b. Endocervicitis
c. Swollen vagina
d. Burning pain
286. In Gram stained blood
smear of patients suffering
from gonohrrea, gonococci
can be observed in:
a. Blood plasma.
b. Mast cells.
c. Neutrophils.
d. Eosinophils.
287. All of the following
are antigenic structures of
N.Gonohrrea except:
a. Pilli
b. Outermemrane protein
c. Lipooligosaccharide
d. IgA protease
e. None of the above
288. All of the following
concerning N.Gonohrrea are
true except:
a. It does not affect
animals
b. There are no healthy
cariers as all cases are
diseased.
c. Transmitted by sexual
intercourse.
d. None of the above
289. T or F: There is no
know immunity to
N.Gonohrrea
290. Which of the following
test is the fastest for
detection of N.Gonohrrea
a. Elisa
b. Gene probe
c. Coagulation test
d. Oxidase test
291. Treatment of
N.Gonohrrea includes the
following:
a. Penicillin
b. Cephalosporins
c. Fluroquinolones
d. Both B and C
37. e. All of the above.
292. H.ducreyi cause one of
the following disease:
a. Chancroid.
b. Syphilis.
c. Muscollosum
contagiosum.
d. Non-gonococcal
urethritis.
293. All of the following is
true about H.ducreyi
except:
a. They are gram negative
coccobacilli.
b. They can grow readily
on chocolate agar.
c. Need both X and V
factor.
d. Can be killed by
ceftriaxone.
294. Pathogenic Treponema
Pallidum can be
demonstrated by all of the
following except:
a. Direct
immunoflourescence
technique
b. Dark ground microscopy
c. Culture on selective
media
d. PCR
295. All of the following is
true about Treponema
Pallidum except:
a. One of the spirochetes
b. Motile by exoflagellum
c. Have a cork screw like
motility
d. Can’t be stained by
aniline dyes
296. One of the following is
true about Reagin:
a. It is produced as a
result of tissue invasion
by microorganisms
b. It is specific to
Treponema Pallidum
c. Directed against a
tissue protein
d. Can’t be used to detect
Treponemal infection
serologically
297. RPR is a test used to
detect:
a. Anti-treponemal
antibodies in heat
inactivated serum
b. Anti-treponemal
antibodies in unheated
serum
c. Anti-cardiolipin
antibodies in heat
inactivated serum
d. Anti-cardiolipin
antibodies in unheated
serum
38. 298. Carbon particles are
used to demonstrate the
flocculation that occurs in:
a. RPR
b. VDRL
c. FTA-abs
d. TP-PA
299. 1ry syphilis is
characterized by all of the
following except:
a. Generalized
lymphadenopathy
b. Hard chancre
c. Positive anti-treponemal
antibodies in serum
d. All lesions can heal
spontaneously
300. All of the following
are present in patients with
2ry stage syphilis except:
a. Condyloma lata
b. Maculopapular rash
c. Generalized
lymphadenopathy
d. Gumma lesions
T/F
301. Regain appears in the
patient’s serum since the
first day the treponemal
infection occurs.
302. Anti-treponemal
antibodies can be used to
monitor the treatment
efficacy as it is a quantitative
measure of infection load.
303. Congenital syphilis can
be prevented by adequate
treatment of pregnant
infected mother.
304. One of the following
chlamydia types causing
ocular infection is :
a. C. pisccaci
b. C. trachomatis
c. C. pneumonie
305. Reiter syndrome is
characterized by the
following except:
a. Uretheritis
b. Perithepatitis
c. Uveitis
d. Mucolcenteous lesion
306. Serotype D of C.
trachomatis cause:
a. Lymphogranuloma
venereum
b. Reiter syndrome
c. Genital tract infection
d. Both b& c
307. Non gonococcal
urethritis occurs mainly
a. Male
b. Female
c. Both a & b
39. 308. Complication of LGV :
a. Pelvic inflammatory
disease
b. Perihepatitis
c. Procitis
d. Strictures
309. Resvoir of LGV of
chronically infected person
a. Rectum
b. Cervix
c. Penis
d. All of the above
310. Lab. Diagnosis of C.
trachomatis :
a. Cytology
b. Isolation
c. PCR
d. All of the above
311. In cytologic
examination, sample is
stained by :
a. H&E
b. Fluorescein
isothiocyanate
c. Giemsa stain
d. Both b & c
312. Prescence of IgM in
blood suggest :
a. Past infection
b. Current infection
c. Neonatel infection
d. Both b&c
313. Treatment of C.
trachomatis :
a. Tetracycline
b. Erythromycin
c. Sulphonamide
d. All of the above
314. Ureaplasma urealyticim
in females is associated with
one of the following:
a. Post-abortal or post-
partum fever
b. Abortion.
c. Tubo-ovarian abscesses
d. Lung disease in premature,
low-birth weight infants
315. Mycoplasma hominis is
associated in females with
all the following except:
a. pyelonephritis
b. bartholinitis….
c. cystitis
d. Salpingitis
316. According to the
laboratory diagnosis of
mycoplasmal infections all of
the following is true except:
a. Serodiagnosis is so
important in mucoplasma
identification
b. Ureaplasma require 10%
urea in the media to grow
c. Only upper genitourinary
specimens are of value
d. Mycoplasmas have the
characteristic fried- egg
appearance
40. 317. Mycoplasma hominis :
a. they are associated with
non-gonococcal urethritis
in males
b. they have been associated
with lung disease in
premature, low-birth
weight infants in females
c. they are associated with
cervicitis, endometritis,
urethritis in females
d. They do not appear to
cause diseases in males
318. About specimens can
be taken in case of
mycoplasma infection All of
the following are true
except:
a. Urethral swabs from the
lower genitourinal tract
b. urine after prostatic
massage in males
c. Fetal membrane swabs
d. Semen as a part of
investigating infertility.
319. Laboratory diagnosis
of mycoplasma infection can
be achieved by:
a. Cytology
b. Serology
c. Isolation
d. Direct antigen detection
320. In laboratory diagnosis
of mycoplasma infection ,all
of the following are true
except:
a. Specimens are put in
Stuart’s transport medium
and sent to the laboratory.
b. Swabs put in a moist
atmosphere plus 5-10%
CO2 at 37oC, incubated
for 7 days
c. Ureaplasma demonstrate
their urease activity by
thier fried-egg appearance
on colonies
d. ureaplasma grow and result
in production of ammonia
that alters the pH and
changes the colour of the
medium
True or false:
321. Nucleic acid probes and
polymerase chain reaction
(PCR) are recently developed
processes which has been
used successfully for
detection of mycoplasma
infection
322. Ureaplasma urealyticum
do not appear to cause
diseases in males.
323. Only upper
genitourinary specimens are
of value in the laboratory
diagnosis of mycoplasma
infection
41. 324. ureaplasma
demonstrate their urease
activity in liquid media wit
urea and phenol red by
ammonia production that
alters the pH and changes the
colour of the medium.
325. All of the following
are true about Herpes
viruses except :
a. Large single stranded RNA
viruses
b. Icosahedral symmetry
c. Cause subclinical infections
d. Cause latent infections
326. All of the following
members of herpes viruses
could be isolated easily in
cell cultures and produce
giant cells except
a. Cytomegalovirus
b. Epstein – Bar virus
c. Varicellas - Zoster virus
d. Herpes simplex virus type
1
327. As regard to
classification of Herpes
viridae family , all of the
following are Alpha
subfamily herpes virinea
except
a. Herpes simplex virus type
1
b. Herpes simplex virus type
2
c. Varicellas - Zoster virus
d. Human herpes virus – 6
328. ………. Is one of the
Gamma subfamily Herpes
virinae
a. Kaposis’s sarcoma
associated herpes virus
b. Varicellas - Zoster virus
c. Cytomegalovirus
d. Herpes simplex virus type
2
329. HSV-1 and HSV-2 are
structurally and
morphologically
distinguishable
a. True
b. False
330. Although HSV-1 and
HSV-2 cross react
serologically but some unique
proteins exist for each type
a. True
b. False
42. 331. ……….. is transmitted
sexually or from maternal
genital infections to newborn
a. Herpes simplex virus type
1
b. Herpes simplex virus type
2
c. Varicellas - Zoster virus
d. Cytomegalovirus
332. Herpes simplex virus
type 1 spreads by contact
usually involving infected
saliva
a. True
b. False
333. All of the following
are true about HSV except
a. Cytolytic virus
b. Replicates in nerves
c. Transmission is by contact
with infected secretions
d. The typical lesion is a
vesicle that contains
serous fluid
334. In general HSV-2
becomes latent in ……..
ganglia
a. Trigeminal
b. Lumbar
c. Sacral
d. Both b & c
335. Most primary
infections by HSV-2 occur
in childhood as evidenced by
the early appearance of
antibody
a. True
b. False
336. ……. Is not one of the
primary and recurrent
diseases that caused by
HSV-1
a. Encephalitis
b. Herpes libialis
c. Aseptic meningitis
d. Herpetic whitlow
337. A child represents by
fever , irritability and
vesicular lesions in the
mouth ,the most common
diagnosis is
a. Herpes labialis
b. Keratoconjunctivitis
c. Acute gingivostomatitis
d. Encephalitis
338. …….. is a herpetic
lesion of the skin of the
finger or hand. It often
occurs in medical personnel
as a result of contact with
patient's lesions.
a. Encephalitis
b. Herpes libialis
c. Aseptic meningitis
d. Herpetic whitlow
43. 339. …….. caused by HSV-
2. It is usually mild, self
limited disease.
a. Encephalitis
b. Herpes libialis
c. Aseptic meningitis
d. Herpetic whitlow
340. By staining scrapings
obtained from the base of a
herpetic vesicle with Giemsa
stain , the presence of
mononucleated giant cells
suggests herpes virus
infection.
a. True
b. False
341. Serology may be
useful in recurrent
infections since a significant
rise in antibody titer is
observed.
a. True
b. False
342. ……… is the treatment
of choice in the treatment
of choice for encephalitis
and systemic disease caused
by HSV-1
a. Tetracyclin
b. Erythromycin
c. Acyclovir
d. Sulphonamide
343. Acyclovir can’t be
used for treatment of
primary and recurrent
genital herpes because it
increases the event of virus
shedding
a. True
b. False
344. Amplification of viral
DNA from CSF is used for
detection of herpetic viral
NA by PCR
a. True
b. False
44. The answers
1. C
2. C
3. C
4. A
5. B
6. B
7. D
8. C
9. C
10. A
11. A
12. B
13. A
14. B
15. A
16. B
17. B
18. B
19. B
20.B
21. D
22.B
23.D
24.D
25.C
26.D
27.C
28.B
29.A
30.C
31. E
32.A
33.B
34.D
35.C
36.B
37.E
38. b
39. b
40.D
41. D
42.C
43.D
44.B
45.C
46.C
47.B
48.B
49.D
50.C
51. B
52.B
53.A
54.B
55.C
56.A
57.C
58.D
59.B
60.D
61. C
62.C
63.B
64.C
65.C
66.B
67.D
68.B
69.C
70.D
71. C
72. c
73.B
74.F
75.F
76.F
77.T
78.F
79.T
80.
4 3 7 1 2 5 6
81. C
82. B
83. A
84. C
85. B
86. D
87. D
88. B
89. A
45. 90. C
91. B
92. B
93. B
94. D
95. A
96. B
97. B
98. A
99. D
100. D
101. A
102. C
103. D
104. B
105. B
106. B
107. A
108. A
109. B
110. C
111. D
112. A
113. A
114. A
115. B
116. B
117. A
118. D
119. A
120. C
121. A
122. B
123. C
124. D
125. B
126. B
127. D
128. D
129. C
130. C
131. B
132. B
133. B
134. B
135. C
136. C
137. D
138. A
139. C
140. C
141. B
142. B
143. B
144. A
145. C
146. A
147. B
148. B
149. D
150. A
151. D
152. B
153. B
154. C
155. D
156. B
157. B
158. B
159. C
160. B
161. D
162. C
163. C
164. B
165. D
166. C
167. B
168. A
169. A
170. D
171. B
172. B
173. C
174. B
175. C
176. C
177. B
178. A
179. B
180. A
181. A
182. B
183. B
184. B
185. A
186. B
187. B
188. B
189. D
190. C
191. D
192. A
193. C
194. B
195. A
196. B
197. D
198. A
199. B
200. C
201. C
46. 202. C
203. A
204. C
205. C
206. A
207. B
208. D
209. C
210. C
211. C
212. B
213. A
214. B
215. C
216. B
217. B
218. D
219. A
220. A
221. B
222. B
223. A
224. B
225. C
226. B
227. C
228. C
229. B
230. D
231. B
232. A
233. B
234. D
235. A
236. C
237. D
238. A
239. C
240. D
241. D
242. B
243. B
244. B
245. A
246. B
247. D
248. C
249. C
250. B
251. A
252. D
253. A
254. A
255. B
256. B
257. B
258. D
259. A
260. D
261. D
262. C
263. D
264. C
265. D
266. D
267. D
268. A
269. B
270. D
271. A
272. D
273. B
274. B
275. F
276. E
277. H
278. D
279. D
280. E
281. B
282. E
283. D
284. B
285. A
286. C
287. E
288. D
289. T
290. B
291. D
292. A
293. C
294. C
295. B
296. A
297. D
298. A
299. A
300. D
301. F
302. F
303. T
304. B
305. B
306. C
307. A
308. D
309. D
310. D
311. C
312. D
313. D
314. D
315. B
316. A
47. 317. D
318. A
319. C
320. C
321. False
322. False
323. True
324. True
325. A
326. B
327. D
328. A
329. B
330. A
331. B
332. A
333. B
334. D
335. B
336. C
337. C
338. D
339. C
340. B
341. B
342. C
343. B
344. A
48. Essay
Anatomy
1. Mention the division of the cavity of the pelvis ?
2. Mention the boundaries of the pelvic inlet (pelvic brim) ?
3. Mention the boundaries of pelvic outlet ?
4. Mention boundaries of cavity of the true pelvis ?
5. Arrangement of the pelvic viscera in female (from posterior to anterior) ?
6. Discuss arrangement of the pelvic organs in male ?
7. Write short account on piriformis muscle?
8. Write short account on obturator internus ?
9. Discuss obturator fascia ?
10. Mention origin of levator ani muscle ?
11. Mention insertion of levator ani ?
12. Mention nerve supply of levator ani ?
13. Write short note about coccygeus muscle ?
14. Discuss the pelvic fascia ?
15. Compare between pelvic peritoneum in male and female ?
16. Give a short account on:
Fascia of the wall of pelvis
Fascia of pelvic floor
17. list the ligaments in the pelvis
18. give a short account on obturator fascia
19. Give the origin, course and termination of internal iliac artery
20.Enumerate the branches of anterior division of internal iliac artery(parietal
and visceral branches)
21. Mention the relations of anterior iliac artery
22.Enumerate the branches of posterior division of the internal iliac artery
23.Give the origin, course and termination of the umbilical artery
24.Give a short account on superior gluteal artery
25.Give the origin, course, relations, termination and the branches of the
median sacral artery
26.Enumerate the ventral branches of the sacral plexus
27.Enumerate the dorsal branches of the sacral plexus
28.Give the origin, the site and the termination of sacral plexus
49. 29.Enumerate the ventral and dorsal branches of the roots of the sacral plexus
30.Mention the course, relations branches and termination of pelvis part of the
sympathetic trunk
31. Enumerate the parts of female reproductive system?
32.What’s meant by uterus?
33.Demonstrate the exact position of uterus.
34.Enumerate the parts of uterus
35.Which part of uterus is:
Rounded free part
Its constriction called isthmus
Lie in the lateral angle of uterus
Its canal connected to uterine cavity
36.Mention the normal variants of uterus position
37.Give the relation of the uterus:
Anterior
Lateral
Posterior
38.What’s the lower part of the uterus? Give a short account on it.
39.Mention the 2 divisions of cervix, and give the relations of one of them
40.What’s the external os?
41. Mention the course of the peritoneum that covering the uterus
42.Mention 2 ligaments attached to cervix, and give their extensions
43.Mention 2 ligaments not attached to cervix, and give their extensions
44.Enumerate the parts & contents of broad ligament?
45.Mention 3 of the factors that keep uterus in position.
46.Give the blood supply of the uterus?
47.Mention the lymphatic drainages of uterus.
48.In which lymph is drained each of the following:
Funds
Upper part of the body
Cornuae
Lower part of the body
Cervix
49.Give the course of uterine artery.
50.What’s the mesovarium? what it cover?
51. Define the perineum, and say its boundaries?
50. 52. Define the urogenital triangle and say it's boundaries?
53. Discuss the female external genital organs?
54. Discuss what are the fasciae present in the urogenital triangle?
55. What are the structures piercing the perineal membrane?
56. What do u know about the perineal body?
57. Discuss the relations and content of superficial perineal pouch?
58. Discuss the relations and content of deep perineal pouch?
59. Discuss the course and the branches of the internal pedundual artery?
60.Demonstrate the site of the ovary.
61. Give the dimensions & the contents of ovarian fossa.
62.Give the dimensions of the ovary and what does it look like?
63.Mention the surfaces of the ovary & their relations.
64.Mention the borders & the ends of the ovary.
65.Mention the ligaments of the ovary, give the position & extension of one of
them.
66.Give the blood supply of the ovary (Arterial& venous).
67.Demonstrate the course of lymphatic drainage of the ovary.
68.Give the origin of :
69.Sympathetic nervous supply of the ovary
70.Parasympathetic nervous supply of the ovary
71. What’s the anterior relation of ovarian fossa?
72.What’s the posterior relation of ovarian fossa? What does it supply?
73.What’s the lateral relation of ovarian fossa? What does it supply?
74.Mention the extension of fallopian tube.
75.Mention the cause that make fallopian tube of great mobility.
76.Enumerate the parts of fallopian tube.
77.Which part of fallopian tube is:
Opening into peritoneal cavity
Located in the wall of the uterus
The widest & longest part
The narrowest part
78.Give the blood supply of fallopian tube& their origins
79.What’s the lymphatic drainage of fallopian tube
80.Define mammary glands?
81. Mention steps of development of the mammary gland?
82.Mention shape , size and contour of the female mammary gland?
51. 83.Discuss structure of the female breast?
84.Discuss arterial supply of the breast and its venous drainage ?
85.Mention Lymphatic drainage ?
86.Mention some clinical notes ?
87.Mention congenital anomalies ?
Histology
1- Discuss the content of mucosa layer of the fallopian tube?
2- Compare between the medulla and the cortex of the ovary?
3- Describe the stroma which the cells of the cortex embedded in it?
4- What are the adaptations of the fallopian tube to do its function?
-some cells of mucosa have cilia to move the fluid which secreted from the
secretary cells,, and to facilitate the movement of the ovum .
- the fluid lining it is imp for the nutrition and movement of the sperms ,, also
have some antibodies to kill any microorganism
-there is large blood vessels in the serosa ,, which facilitate the uptake of
ovum during ovulation by engorge this vessels by blood so it increase in size and
also the fimbrea so become near from the ovary
-the ampula has large folding to slow down the movement of the ovum ,, to
increase it's chances to be fertilized
5- discuss the oogenesis in prenatal life ?
6- Discuss the histological features of primordial follicles?
7- Discuss the histological features of 1ry follicles?
8- Compare between the 1ry follicle and the primordial follicles?
9- Discuss the histological features of 2ry follicles?
10- Discuss the histological features of graffian l follicles?
11- Discuss how each of the following formed :
-theca follicle
-zona pellucida
-corona radiate
-follicular antrum
- cumulus oophrous
52. 12- discuss how the corpus luteum formed?
13- discuss the histological features of the 2ry oocyte ?
14- compare between the function of the zona pellucida after and before the
ovulation ?
15- compare between the theca lutein cells and the granulose lutein cells?
16- compare between the 2 types of the corpus luteum?
17- discuss the atrisea phenomena of the ovarian follicles?
18. Enumerate the layers of vagina
19. What’s the cause of vacuolated appearance of mucosa of vagina? By which
stain?
20.Mention the function of bacteria in vagina
21. What’s the cause of low pH of vagina?
22.What’s the most important role of uterine cervix to vagina?
23. Demonstrate the histological structure of vaginal cervix
24. Demonstrate the histological structure of:
Mucosa of vagina
Musclosa of vagina
Adventitial layer of vagina
25.Compare between mucosa of vagina & cervix
26.Define the placenta.
27.Mention the functions of placenta
28.Enumerate parts of placenta, compare between them.
29.Demonstrate the histological composition of chorionic villi.
30.What’s the site of exchanging blood between mother & fetus? And mention
its histological composition.
31. Demonstrate the normal consequences of syncytiotrophoblasts &
cytotrophoblasts.
32.Demonstrate the histological structure of maternal part of placenta
33.Demonstrate the histological structure of fetal part of placenta
34.What’s the placenta barrier? Demonstrate its composition.
35.Which layer or part of vagina:
Have vacuolated appearance
Lined by non-keratinized stratified epithelium
Contain muscles longitudinally
Contain striated muscle fibers
53. Contain blood capillaries
Have extensive venous plexus
36-Enumerate the functional layers of the endometrium, and then
differentiate between them.
37.Enumerate layers of the myometrium and then describe the muscles in each
layer.
38.Identify the phase shown in this picture of an adult uterus.
39.Identify the phase shown in this picture of an adult uterus.
40.Differentiate between the uterine cervix and the uterus
41. Identify the stage shown in this picture of the mammary gland & discuss its
histological features.
54. 42.Discuss the histology of the nipple & areola.
43.Explain the histophysiology of the female mammary gland at puberty.
44.Mention the changes occurring to the mammary gland at the time of
ovulation & in menopause.
45.Discuss the histology of the mammary gland during pregnancy.
46.Tabulate the difference between the thyroid gland & the lactating
mammary gland.
Pathology
1- Mention the incidence of Endocervical Polyp ?
2- Mention morphology of Endocervical Polyp ?
3- Mention the clinical features of Endocervical Polyp ?
4- Classify and mention types of tumors of the cervix ?
5- Mention types of carcinoma of Cervix Uteri ?
6- Mention epidemiology and pathogenesis of cervical carcinoma ?
7- Mention risk factors of carcinoma of cervix ?
8- Define and mention causes of Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia (CIN)
55. 9- Mention grades of CIN and their features ?
10-Define cervical carcinoma in situ (CIN III) ?
11- Mention morphology of carcinoma in situ and its diagnosis ?
12-Mention morphology of invasive cervical carcinoma ?
13-Mention method of its spread ?
14-Mention its Staging ?
15-Mention its prognosis ?
16-Enumerate the ovarian neoplastic and functional cysts
17-Mention 4 descriptions of follicular cyst
18-Describe the luteal cysts in 3 points
19-Discuss stein leventhal syndrome
20- Mention the microscopic changes that occur in the polycystic
ovaries
21-Give an account on chocolate cysts
22- Enumerate types of the primary tumors of the ovary
23- Discuss surface epithelial stromal serous tumors
24- Compare between the microscopic changes in different serous
tumors according to their behavior
25- Describe serous tumors grossly
26- Enumerate 5 points about surface epithelial stromal mucinous
tumors
27- Give an account on the morphology of the mucinous tumors
28- Discuss the surface epithelial tumors prognosis
29- What are the types of the ovarian cysts?
30- Compare between each type of the nonneoplatic ovarian cysts?
31- Classify the primary tumors of the ovary?
32- Compare between serous cystadenoma and serous
cystadenocarcinoma?
33- Discuss the pseudomyxoma peritonei?
34- What do u know about stein leventhal syndrome?
35- define the endometrial hyperplasia and it's type?
36- Compare between simple / complex/ atypical hyperplasia?
37- Classify the tumor of the body of uterus?
38- Discuss the risk factors and types of carcinoma of endometrium?
39- Discuss the spread , staging and clinical features of the carcinoma
of endometrium?
40- Classify tumors of the ovary
56. 41-Classify & Enumerate 1ry tumors of the ovary
42- Compare between microscopic picture of serous and mucinous
tumors (benign - malignant - borderline)
43- What's the prognosis of mucinous tumors of the ovary
44- Compare between different types of teratomas (morphology &
prognosis)
45- Give a short account on dysgerminoma
46- give a short account on diseases of the ovary that may lead to
Meig's syndrome.
47- State the clinical presentation of sex cord-stromal tumors.
48- Enumerate functioning ovarian tumors
49- Mention the different routes of spread of malignant tumors
50- What's the etiology of metastatic ovarian tumors
51-What 's krukenberg's tumor ?
52- Compare between endometriosis and adenomyosis according to :
definition
site
clinical picture
53- enumerate the common sites of endometriosis
54- mention the theories of endometriosis pathogenesis
55- describe the gross morphology of endometriosis
56- discuss the gross morphology of fibromyoma (lieomyoma)
57- list the clinical effects of fibroid (lieomyoma)
58- give an account on mullerian tumor (carcinosarcoma)
59.Compare between the complete and the partial hydatidiform mole?
60. Discuss the clinical features and the complications of the hydatidiform
mole?
61. Discuss the invasive mole and show to which degree it occur as result
from hydatidiform mole?
62. Discuss the incidence and the clinical features of the choricarcinoma?
63.Explain why the spread of the choricarcinoma is state as special and
mention other type of tumors?
64.What is the etiology of uterine bleeding?
65. Enumerate the causes of uterine bleeding by age group?
66.Discuss the ectopic pregnancy, with mention: its risk factors – clinical
features – complication?
What is the pathogenesis of the preecla
57. 67.Discuss the developmental anomalies of the breast
68.Give a short account on :
Polythelia and polymastia
Retracted or inverted nipple
69.Describe the pathogenesis of acute mastitis and give reasons for
possibility of abscess formation and mention the age of incidence
70.Discuss the gross and microscopic morphology of:
Acute mastitis
Fat necrosis
Mammary duct ectasia
71. Discus the morphology, the incidence and the pathogenesis of galactocele
72. Differentiate the morphology of fat necrosis from mammary duct
ectasia microscopically and grossly
73.Define the blue dome cysts and mention the pathogenesis
74.Discuss the morphology of non-proliferative fibrocystic changes grossly
and microscopically
75.Enumerate types of proliferative fibrocystic changes and mention the
relationship between the benign epithelial changes and cancer breast
76.Explain the morphology of Fibroadenoma of the breast.
77.Describe the clinical presentation of intraductal papilloma.
78.Discuss the morphology of intraductal papilloma.
79.Differentiate between fibroadenoma & phylloides tumor.
80.Mention the most important risk factors of breast cancer.
81. Explain the cause & incidence of breast cancer.
82.Discuss the difference between comedo & non comedo ductal carcinoma in
situ.
83.Discuss the gross & microscopic appearance of infilterating ductal
carcinoma NOS.
84.Compare between the different types of invasive ductal carcinoma with
favorable prognosis
85.Discuss the pathology of:
a. Paget’s disease of the breast
b. Inflammatory carcinoma
c. Lobular carcinoma in situ
58. d. Infiltrating lobular carcinoma
86.What are the common features of all breast carcinomas?
87. Discuss the staging & the spread of breast carcinoma
88.Discuss the prognostic factors of breast carcinoma
89.Discuss the pathology of Gynecomastia.
Physiology
1- Mention the hormones that control the functions of the female reproductive
system then mention the site of secretion of each.
2- What’s meant by “female reproductive cycle”? & what are its results?
3- Enumerate the phases of ovarian cycle & mention the hormone responsible
for each phase & its role.
4- Discuss the hormonal regulation of the ovarian cycle.
5- Mention the stages of endometrial cycle and mention the corresponding
stage to each from the ovarian cylcle
6- Discuss the changes occurring in the proliferative phase of the endometrial
cycle
7- Discus the secretary phase of the endomertrial cycle ( discus the role of
progesterone in the endometrial cycle )
8- What’s the aim of endometrial proliferation through the 2 stages of
endometrial cycle:
9- Discuss the process of menstruation
10-Give account on anovulatory cycle:
11- Mention the site of secretion of female sexual hormones.
12.Discuss the main effects of progesterone on female
13.Discuss the main effects of Estrogen on females.
14. Compare between the effects of Estrogen & Progesterone on internal
genitalia & protein metabolism.
15. Compare between the effects of estrogen & progesterone on the female
breast & electrolyte balance
16. Discuss the physiological changes that occur during menopause.
17. Discuss the manifestations of abnormal level of ovarian hormones.
18. Define: fertilization
19. Mention the exact position where fertilization takes place
20.How much time the fertilized ova take to reach the cavity of uterus?
59. 21. Mention the factors that aim in transportation of ovum to cavity of
uterus.
22.Give an account on what’s the morula?
23.Mention the serious of development of the uterus.
24.Define: implantation.
25.State the serious of events that happen during implantation
26.Enumerate functions of placenta.
27.Give a short account on Human Chorionic Gonadotropin.
28.Tabulate the functions of both estrogen & progesterone during pregnancy
29.Give a short account on Human Chorionic somatomammotropin.
30.Mention 3 hormone play important role in:
31. What happen to the levels of each of the following hormones during
pregnancy:
30- Discuss the mechanism of termination of the ovarian cycle.
Micro
1- Mention one point of similarity and one point of difference between:
N. Gonorrhea & N. Meningitidis.
2- Discuss the virulence factors of N. Gonorrhea.
3- Describe the clinical features in male & female patients of Gonorrhea.
4- Mention the specimen taken in lab diagnosis of Gonorrhea in both acute &
chronic stages of the disease.
5- Describe the smears prepared for gonorrhea diagnosis & mention when it
can’t be used
6- Discuss the culture features of N. Gonorrhea, then mention why culture
is used during acute stage of the disease.
7- Discuss the lab diagnosis of H. ducreyi
8. What’s the disease caused by N-gonorrhea?
9. Mention the morphology of N-gonorrhea.
10. What are the culture requirements for incubation of N-gonorrhea?
11. Mention 2 types of cultures for N-gonorrhea, demonstrate characters of
each.
12. Demonstrate the colonies characters of N-gonorrhea.
60. 13. What’s the result of oxidase reaction of N-gonorrhea? How we can
differentiate between it & meningococcus.
14. Enumerate the virulence factors of N-gonorrhea.
15. Which part of N-gonorrhea is responsible for:
Play role in attachment of organism to cells
Mediate resistance to phagocytosis
Can split IgA
The basis of serotyping of N-gonorrhea
16. Demonstrate the cascade of infection by N-gonorrhea, and what its
difference effects on both males & females.
17. Define N-gonorrhea pathologically
18. Compare between the consequences of N-gonorrhea in both sexes.
19. Give the effects of:
N-gonorrhea
Bacteremia caused by N-gonorrhea
Ophthalmia neonatorum
20.Mention the cause of Ophthalmia neonatrum
21. What’s the state of immunity against N-gonorrhea infections? Why?
22.Compare between laboratory diagnosis during acute & chronic stages.
23.Enumerate lines of treatment against N-gonorrhea.
24.What are the clinical results of H-ducreyi?
25.What are the causes of chancre?
26.Compare between soft & solid chancre.
27.How we can perform a laboratory diagnosis for H-ducreyi?
28.Mention the lines of treatment of H-ducreyi.
29.Describe the clinical features of the Chlamydial genital infection in males
and females and its complications
30. Discuss three methods for laboratory diagnosis of Chlamydial infection
31. Discuss the serological diagnosis of Chlamydial infection
32. Describe the specimen taken in mycoplasmal infection case
33.Explain the isolation assay of mycoplasmal infection
34.Give the treatment for chlamydial and mycoplasmal infection
35.Give a note on the prevention of c.trachomatis infection and its
complications
36.Give a short account on urogenital mycoplasmas
37. Give a note on the typical morphology of treponema pallidum
61. 38. Discuss the identification of treponema pallidum by:
Staining
Culture
Serological tests
39.Discuss the antigenic structures of treponema pallidum
40.Mention the principle of non terponemal antigens tests (cardiolipin
antibody tests) and give its disadvantages
41. Give the types of cardiolipin antibody tests and explain the principle of
each one
42.Give the types of treponemal antibody tests and explain the principle of
each one
43.Describe the most sensitive test in early syphilis and give reason that it
cannot be used to judge the efficacy of treatment
44.Give an account on the clinical findings of syphilis in :
Primary stage
Secondary stage
Late stage
45.Give a an account on congenital syphilis
46.Discuss the laboratory diagnosis of treponema pallidum and mention the
specimen taken in:
Early stage
Secondary stage
Late stage
47.Discuss the serological detection of treponema pallidum in:
Primary stage
Secondary stage
Late stage
48.Metion the treatment of syphilis
49.Compare between HSV1 & HSV2 according to:
Mode of transmission
Clinical features
Site of latency
Clinical findings
62. 50.Mention the structures of herpes and papilloma viruses
51. Classify papilloma viruses and give examples
52.Give an account on the pathogenesis of papilloma viruses
53.Give a short account on the epidemiology and transmission of papilloma
virus
54.Discuss the clinical findings in a case of HSV1 infection
55.Discuss the clinical findings in a case of HSV2 infection
56.Compare between the laboratory diagnosis in a case suspected to be
HSV1 OR HSV2 and another one suspected to be papilloma virus
57.Explain the pathogenesis and the immunity against HSV1& HSV2
58.Give an account on molluscum contagiosum