100 picture osce in obstetrics and gynaecology

OBSTERICS AND GYNAECOLOGY PICTURE TEST OSCE 2
Dr OkechukwuA. Ugwu
10/29/2018 1Okechukwu A. Ugwu

NUVARING
• A. Its contains ethinyl estradiol and the
etonogestrel. T
• B. The ring is placed within 5 days of
menses onset and, after 3 weeks of use, is
removed for 1 week to allow withdrawal
bleeding. T
• C. It contains ethinyl estradiol and the
progestin norelgestromin. F
• D. Transdermal patch and vaginal ring
produce metabolic changes, side effects,
and efficacy rates comparable to those
with COC pills. T
• E. It may be removed during intercourse
but should be
replaced within 3 hours to maintain efficacy. T

A. If imaging fails to locate a
translocated implant, etonogestrel
blood level determination can help
verify that the implant is indeed in
situ. T
B. implant is ideally inserted within 5
days of menses onset. T
C. For transitioning methods, an
implant is placed on the day of the first
placebo combination oral
contraceptive (COC) pill. T
D. implant may be inserted before
discharge following delivery or
abortion. T
E. Fertility is restored rapidly
following removal of implant
contraception. T

Contraceptive Sponge
• A. Sponge is an over-the-
counter, one-size-fits-all
device.T
• B. can be inserted up to 36
hours prior to intercourse. F
24hours
• C. while in place, it provides
contraception regardless of
coital frequency. T
• D. should remain in place
for 24 hours after
intercourse. F 6hours
• E. Impregnated with
Nonoxynol-9.T

Question 22: Regarding the picture on display:
a. This prevents nosocomial
infection. T
b. An accoucher must wear this
all the time to prevent
infection. F ***
c. The hospital attendant is
expected to wear this all the
time. F
d. The scrub-nurse should also
wear this. T
e. It is not necessary for theatre
cleaner to wear this. T

Question 12: Observe the picture:
a. The pathology demonstrated is
commoner among women
within the reproductive age
group. F
b. Weakness of the broad
ligaments leads to this
pathology. F
c. This condition may be
associated with stress
incontinence T
d. The condition is readily
amenable to pessary insertion.
F
e. Colposuspension is one of the
surgical methods of correction.
F

Question 14: Concerning the instrument shown:
a. It is used during
Caesarean section F
b. It is used during vaginal
Hysterectomy F
c. Its used for destructive
operation F
d. The cervix should be
fully dilated before it is
used F
e. Injury to the ureters
may follow the use of
this instrumentF

Question 16: This is a laparoscopic view of the pelvis
in a patient with pelvic inflammatory disease.
a. Fitz-Curtis-Hugh syndrome
is a complication of this
condition. T
b. Bacterial vaginosis is a
known aetiological factor. F
c. Characteristic findings at
laparoscopy are diagnostic.
T
d. Long term sequelae include
preterm delivery. F
e. Pelvic abscess results from
secondary invasion by
anaerobic organisms. T

Question 20: The instrument shown is used in a
particular gynaecological procedure.
a. It is indicated in the evaluation of
uterine malformations. T
b. It is indicated in the evaluation of
uterine perforations.F
c. It is usually performed in the
mid-luteal phase of the
menstrual cycle. F
d. It is contraindicated in the
presence of a pelvic mass. F
e. It must be performed under
general anaesthesia. F

Question 19:Regarding destructive operations:
a. Craniotomy is indicated in
obstructed labour with a life
fetus. F
b. Cleidotomy is the division of
one or both clavicles. T
c. Simpson’s perforator is used
for decapitation. F
d. Willet’s forceps are used
during craniotomy. F
e. Blond-Heidler saw may be
hooked over the iliac crest in
breech presentation to give
an excellent purchase. F

Question 21: Concerning the condition being
treated with this intervention
a. Genital tract laceration is the
commonest cause of the
condition. F
b. The condition is the
commonest cause of maternal
mortality. T
c. This intervention impedes
access to the genital tract. F
d. Access to anaesthesia may
influence outcome of
management of this condition.
T
e. This intervention can be
employed at any level of care. T

Question 23: This partograph depicts:
a. A normal labour F
b. A prolonged active
phase of labour T***
c. An obstructed labour
F***
a. Adequate uterine
contractions F
b. Fetal distress T

Question 25: Concerning the instrument on
display:
a. It must be used with the
patient under
anaesthesia. T
b. It may be indicated in the
management of
hydatidiform mode. T
c. Autoclaving is the
preferred method of
sterilization. F
d. It is used only by
physicians. F
e. Its primary mechanism is
by mechanical curettage.
F

Question 27: The instruments depicted:
a. Are used during laparoscopic
procedures F
b. Are used for insertion of
Implanon capsules. T
c. Are used for intravenous
infusion. F
d. Are used for fine needle
aspiration and cytology. F
e. Are used for insertion of
Norplant/Jadelle capsules T

Question 26: During this procedure:
a. The cervix should be exposed
with a Sim’s speculum. F
b. An Ayre’s spatula is used to
obtain a sample. T
c. The tip of the spatula should be
rotated through 900 once. F
d. The material obtained should be
stained with haematoxylin and
eosin. T
e. The patient should lie in the left
lateral position.F

QUESTION 4: REGARDING
THIS INSTRUMENT:
a. It is called a Uterine
Sound T
b. It is more appropriately
called a Hegar’s Dilator
used for dilatation and
curettage (D&C) F
c. It is used to measure the
depth of the uterine
cavity during D&C T
d. It is also used for
evacuation of retained
products of conception
(ERPC) F
e. Careless use of this
instrument can cause
uterine perforation T

Question 28: This picture depicts:
a. An ultrasound scan
of the pelvis. F
b. A hystero-
salpingogram. T
c. Normal vagina and
uterus. T
d. Bilateral patent
Fallopian tubes. F
e. Presence of pelvic
adhesions.

Question 29: This is the gross appearance of a
cervical squamous cell carcinoma that is still
limited to the cervix
a. This is likely to be stage
2A. F
b. The predisposing factors
include bacterial
vaginosis infection. F
c. Treatment for the stage
of the lesion
demonstrated does not
require additional
radiotherapy. T
d. The lesion demonstrated
is amenable to cone
biopsy. F
e. This is the commonest
histological type. T

Question 30: The picture depicted here:
a. Represents a major degree of
placenta praevia. F
b. A patient with this condition
should be allowed a short trial
of labour. F
c. Cord prolapse is usually a major
complication of this condition. F
d. It is always complicated by post-
partum haemorrhage. F
e. The patient with this condition
should be delivered by elective
Caesarean section. T

QUESTION 1: REGARDING
THE INSTRUMENT
DISPLAYED:
a. The instrument is used
for retracting the
vagina during VVF
repair T
b. The instrument is utilised
for retracting the
bladder during VVF
repair F
c. The instrument helps
prevent VVF F
d. The instrument is used
for retracing the
Rectus sheath. F
e. It is a self retaining
retractor. T**

Question 8: Concerning the use of the instrument on display.
a. Conditions to be
fulfilled include a
suitable
presentation like
mento-posterior F
b. Conditions to be
fulfilled include the
membranes being
intact. F
c. Indications include
cephalo-pelvic
disproportion. F
d. This instrument
can be used for
rotation. F
e. It can be applied to
brow presentation.

Question 12 – Look at the instrument on display
a. The instrument is
used in retracting
the vagina during
VVF repair F
b. The instrument is
utilised in
retracting the
bladder during
VVF repair F
c. The instrument helps
prevent VVF F
d. The instrument is
used in retracing
the Rectus sheath. F
e. It is a self retaining
retractor. F

QUESTION 20: REGARDING THE INSTRUMENT ON
DISPLAY
a. It is called a Green
Armitage. T
b. It is more
appropriately called
a haemostatic
Doyen’s forceps. F
c. It is used as
haemostatic forceps
during Caesarean
Section. T
d. Its use can cause
uterine rupture. F
e. Its use can cause a
Vesico-Vaginal
Fistula. F10/29/2018 23Okechukwu A. Ugwu

Question 38: The following
are to be noted with this
picture
A This patient is likely to be
immuno – compromised T
B Excision is an option of
treatment T
C Vulval cancer can result
from this condition T
D This condition cannot occur
in patient with HIV F
E This may be caused by a
virus F

:
Question 39:
Carefully look at
this picture:
A Biopsy is necessary for
a 60-year old with
this condition T
B Ward-catheter can be
used for treatmentT
C Antibiotics is the main
treatment hereF
D This is due a sexually
trans
mitted diseaseT
E This can be a
complication
of episiotomy T

Question 40: The
following are to be
noted with this
picture:
A This patient has
bilateral ovarian
cystsT
B The uterus looks
normal T
C This condition may be
benign T
D This patient cannot be
pregnant againF
E One of the
complications of this
condition is bleeding T

A. Both pictures are for same
procedure T
B. There is an advantage of A
over B in terms of outcome F
C. A is more invasive than BF
D. They are used for Pap
smear T
E. The result is interpreted as
CIN1 to CIN111 F

Question 42: Observe this
picture
A This can be caused by a
virus T
B This can be a
complication of
episiotomy T
C This patient will require
plastic surgery T
D She will require
immediate surgery F
E Gynetresia is a possible
complication T

Question 43: Picture shows a vulva with extensive ulcer
a. This woman most
probably has vulval
malignancy. T
b. She is likely aged 35-40
years, the peak age
incidence for vulval
malignancy. F
c. This lesion could be a
syphylitic chancre F
d. This lesion is easily
amenable to cure by
simple vulvectomy F
e. Radiotherapy is the most
suitable modality of
treatment for this
woman’s condition F

Question 2: Look at the picture:
a. The patient with the
pathology shown would
have presented with
menorrhagia. T
b. Infertility would have been
one of her presentation. T
c. Post-operatively,
subsequent pregnancies
should be delivered by
Caesarean section because
the endometrium was
breached. T
d. Laparoscopic surgery is a
management option in this
patient. T
e. If menorrhagia was a
presenting complaint, there
is a certainty that if would
resolve after this surgery. F

a. The patient with the
pathology shown would
have presented with
menorrhagia. T
b. Infertility would have been
one of her presentation. T
c. Post-operatively, subsequent
pregnancies should be
delivered by Caesarean
section because the
endometrium was
breached. F
management option in this
patient. T
e. If menorrhagia was a
presenting complaint,
there is a certainty that if
would resolve after T this
surgery.

Question 1: The instrument on display is a sonicaid,
commonly used in obstetric practice;
a. Will detect fetal heart
decelerations.F
b. Is used every 15 minutes
in 2nd stage of labour.F
c. It is more effective in
polyhydramnios.F
d. It is indicated in patients
with twin gestation
only.F
e. Is more useful in breech
presentations than
cephalic presentations.F

a. The patient with the pathology
shown would have presented with
menorrhagia because of the
number of nodules removed.
b. Infertility would have been one of
her presentations because of the
fatty degeneration observed.
c. Post-operatively, subsequent
pregnancies should be delivered by
Caesarean section because the
endometrium was breached.
management option in this patient.
e. If menorrhagia was a presenting
complaint, there is a certainty that
if would resolve after this surgery.

Question 3: This partograph depicts:
a. A normal labour
b. A prolonged active
phase of labour
c. An obstructed labour
d. Adequate uterine
contractions
e. Fetal distress

Question 4. The picture shown below belongs to a 25
year old with 2 years History of inability to get
pregnant
a) Previous termination of
pregnancy is a likely cause
T
b) This procedure was
performed during
mensesF
c) It is performed under
conscious sedationF
d) Air embolism is a likely
complicationT
e) Hysteroscopy should be
done to further evaluate
the findings shownF

Question 5: This is the gross appearance of a
cervical squamous cell carcinoma that is still
limited to the cervix
a. This is likely to be stage 2A.
b. Bacterial vaginosis is not a
predisposing factor
c. Treatment for the stage of the
lesion demonstrated does not
require additional
radiotherapy.
d. The lesion demonstrated is
not amenable to Loop
Electrosurgical Operation .
e. This is the commonest
histological type.

Question 6: The object shown below:
a) It is utilized in cervical
ripening when there is
intrauterine fetal deathT
b) Oral administration is used
for induction of labourT
c) Rectal administration is
used for post partum
haemorrhageT
d) Its use may cause DICF
e) It should not be used in
patients on anti-shock
garmentF

Question 7:Concerning the picture
below
a) The patient is well positioned
for the examinationT
b) The examiner is on the proper
side of the patientT
c) The patient is sufficiently
exposed for the examinationT
d) The position of the fetus is
being determinedF
e) The lie of the fetus is being
determinedT

Question 8: This is a result obtained from a patient
at 32 weeks gestation.
a. This patient is likely to have
had a previous still birth
from cord prolapse .F
b. This result demonstrate
glucose intolerance in this
patient.F
c. Dietary control is sufficient
for this patient.F
d. Metformin may be used in
the post-partum period in
this patient.T
e. This patient will require
only insulin therapy. F

Question 9:Concerning the picture below
a. Being HIV positive is a
contraindicationF
b. Conditions to be fulfilled
include the membranes being
intactF
c. Indications include cephalo-
pelvic disproportionF
d. This instrument can not be
used for rotationF
e. It can be applied to brow
presentation.F

Question 10: Concerning the use of the
instrument on display.
a. Conditions to be fulfilled
include a suitable
presentation like mento-
posterior
b. Conditions to be fulfilled
include the membranes
being intact.
c. Indications include
cephalo-pelvic
disproportion.
d. This instrument can be
used for rotation.
e. It can be applied to brow
presentation.

Question 4
1. This chart is an ECG
traceF
2. This is a Partogram
chartF
3. This is a cardiotocogram
traceT
4. This trace shows a
uterine contraction that
may be a Braxton Hicks
contraction
5. There is evidence of Fetal
distress on the trace

Question 5: Concerning the picture
below
a) The baby is probably
breech at deliveryF
b) The baby was likely
delivered by caesarean
sectionT
c) The baby may have
presented with the faceT
d) The baby probably had
forceps deliveryT
e) The baby is a product of
destructive operationF

Question 9: The result shown is for a 25 year
old primigravida at 36 weeks gestational age.
a) She should be admitted for
urgent induction of labourT
b) Use of misopristol is
contraindicatedF
c) She should have an elective
Caesarean sectionT
d) Fetal scalp pH is particularly
useful in her intrapartum
monitoringF
e) The baby requires anti-
retroviral therapyT
CD4 count
=13/mm3
Viral Load =
6,585copies/ml

Question 10: The patient below is a 45 yr old lady
with 6/12 history of progressive Abdominal
distension
a) ECG is essential in her
evaluationT
b) Chest X ray is not required
if there are no respiratory
symptomsF
c) Optimum treatment
requires both surgery and
chemotherapyT
d) Ascites is rarely associated
at this ageF
e) Prognosis is not related to
the size of the massT

DERMOID CYST
• Most common benign
tumour of the ovary T
• Most common
neoplasm diagnosed
during pregnancy T
• Most common germ cell
tumour T
• Commonest tumour to
undergo torsion T
10/29/2018 Okechukwu A. Ugwu 46

Ovarian Tumours
• Call Exner Bodies-
Granulosa cell tumour T
• Walthard Cell nest-
Brenner Tumour T
• Signet Ring-Krukuberg
tumour T
• Hobnail Cell- Clear cell
tumour T
• Schiller Duval Bodies-
Endodermal sinus tumour
T

CONCERNING OVARIAN TUMOURS
• Skin, Teeth and
cartillage- Teratoma T
• Psammoma bodies-
Serous epithelial
Tumours T
• Pseudomyxoma
peritonei- Mucinous
tumours T
• Rienke’s Crystal- Hilus
cell tumour T

• BILATERAL in 10-15% of
cases T
• Malignant change occurs
in 0.5-2% of cases T
• Most common malignant
transformation is
squamous cell tumour
• Lining epithelium is
columnar epithelium F

About the procedure shown
a) It is an endoscopic
procedure T
b) It facilitates directed
biopsy T
c) Areas of CIN appear white
when the cervix is painted
with Lugol’s iodine during
this procedure F
d) It can be used to assess
vascular patterns on the
cervix T
e) The instrument used is a
monocular microscope F

Concerning this picture
a) It is used for emergency
contraception F
b) The duration of use is 10
years F
c) It can cause
amenorrhoea T
d) It can be used as part of
a hormone replacement
therapy regimen T
e) It contains oestrogen
and progestin F

This instrument
a) It is useful in the
management of ante-
partum haemorrhage F
b) A systolic blood pressure
of 90mmHg is an
indication for its use T
c) When weaning a patient
off it, it is removed in the
reverse order i.e from no 5
to no 1 F
d) A pulse rate of 60/min is
an indication for its use F
e) It can be employed at
every level of care T

Regarding this lesion
a) It is caused by herpes
simplex virus F
b) Similar lesions may be
found on the vagina,
cervix and uterus F
c) They are generally
painless T
d) Spontaneous healing
occurs within 3 weeks F
e) Pregnancy can make the
lesions large T

Mechanism of Ureteric injury
• Crushing T
• Laceration T
• Ligation with sutures T
• Ischaemia/devasculrisat
ion T
• Segmental resection T
• Transection T

Concerning this instrument and its use
a. It is used in a minimally
invasive procedure T
b. Intestinal obstruction is a
contraindication for its use F
c. The procedure can be
performed under general
anaesthesia T
d. It is useful in the diagnosis of
uterine perforation F
e. It is contraindicated in the
treatment of endometriosis F

About this instrument and its use
a. This instrument is called
the Mayo’s scissors. F
b. The procedure must be
carried out on all
primigravid women. F
c. Its use can lead to a 3rd
degree perineal tear T
d. Dysmenorrhea is a late
complication of its use F
e. The midline incision is
easier to repair than the
medio-lateral type T

About what is shown
management of cervical
stenosis F
b) It is an absorbable tape F
c) It is usually removed at
gestational age of 36
weeks F
d) It should be removed
when there are preterm
contractions F
e) When its use is indicated,
it is inserted after the
second missed period F

The procedure shown
a) The patient should lie in
the left lateral position F
b) The tip of the spatula is
introduced into the cervical
canal and the instrument
rotated through 180
degrees F
c) A cytobrush can be used
in place of Ayre’s spatula T
d) Samples taken are
immediately fixed with
70% alcohol F
e) The cervix is painted with
Lugol’s iodine prior to
sample collection F

Features of delayed ureteric injury
Prolonged ileus T
Watery vaginal discharge T
Prolonged high output
from drains T
Fever/sepsis. T
Persistent flank/
abdominal pain T
Flank mass T
Elevated creatinine or
BUN T

About the condition depicted below
a) It is common in
postmenopausal women F
b) Cystic degeneration
usually precedes hyaline
degeneration F
c) The intraligamentary form
can cause polycythaemia T
d) GnRH antagonists are
useful in its management T
e) Iron deficiency anaemia
secondary to chronic
blood loss is an indication
for surgical management.
**T

Concerning this
a) It is a permanent
measure of
management F
b) Pregnancy is a
contraindication F
c) It should be changed
every 6 months F
d) It can be complicated by
vaginal infection T
e) If it fails, surgery is
indicated T

About this instrument
a) It is a high cavity forceps F
b) It is a non-rotational
forceps and so can be used
in the correction of
asynclitism F
c) It has a sliding lock T
d) The cervix should be at
least 8cm dilated for its
use F
e) It causes more maternal
injury compared to the
vacuum extractor T

Prevention of ureteric injury
1. Generous surgical
exposure T
2. Meticulous surgical
technique T
3. IdentifIcation of Risk
factors T
4. Ureteric stenting T
5. Pre operative IVU not
necessary F

. About this instrument
a) It can be used for
hindwater rupture of
membrane F
b) Its use is associated with
cord prolapse T
c) Its use is associated with
foetal injury T
d) It can cause uterine
hyperstimulation F
e) Its use is contraindicated
in retroviral positive
patients F

a. This is a complication of
external cephalic version
T
b. Coagulation failure is a
complication T
c. Foetal parts will be easily
outlined on palpation.F
d. The uterus will have a
hard wooden consistency
on palpation T
e. Caeserian section should
be performed if the fetus
is dead on presentation.
F

Multiple gestation
a. Cleavage of zygote on day 9
after fertilization produces
the picture shown F
b. The intertwin membrane is
made up of 2 layers of
amnion with no chorionic
layer F
c. Inheritance as autosomal
recessive trait is recognised F
d. There is a risk of twin to twin
transfusion F
e. Caeserian delivery is
indicated if the presentation
of the first twin is vertex and
the second twin non-vertex F

Concerning uterine incisions during
Caesarean delivery
a. A is associated with less likelihood
of adhesion formation to bowel or
omentum T
b. A is more commonly used than B
T
c. B allows for easy entry into the
uterus when there is fibroid in the
lower segment T
d. B is associated with less likelihood
of subsequent uterine rupture
during pregnancy F
e. A is indicated in the presence of
carcinoma of the cervix F
A
B

Concerning the picture shown
a. Birth weight of 1400gram is
an indication for Caeserian
delivery. T
b. Engagement of the
presenting part in the pelvis
is not a contraindication for
external cephalic version. F
c. High parity is a predisposing
factor T
d. Lovset manouvre is used to
deliver the head F
e. Kielland’s forceps can be
used in the delivery of the
aftercoming head F

Concerning the picture shown and
intrapartum monitoring
a. The duration between two
vertical lines on a partograph
is half hour. T
b. In the primigravida, the cervix
dilates at a rate of at least 1
cm/hr in the active phase T
c. The alert line is parallel and
4hours to the right of the
action line F
d. Vaginal examination is done
four hourly. T
e. Plastic Pinnard stethoscope is
better than the metallic one in
monitoring fetal heart rate. T

Concerning the use of this instrument:
a. It is used to reduce the
bisacromial diameter and
allow for vaginal delivery F
b. Cervix need not be fully
dilated in experienced hands T
c. It is employed in the
commonest type of
destructive surgery. T
d. Continuous bladder drainage is
essential after its use T
e. At least 2/5th of the fetal
head must have gone into the
maternal pelvis if its use is
indicated F

About this instrument
a) A tourniquet can be
used in its place. T
b) It is useful in vaginal
hysterectomy F
c) It is used in clamping the
isthmus of the fallopian
tubes F
d) It helps reduce blood
loss during surgery T
e) It can be left in place for
at least 2 hours F

Concerning this instrument,
a. It is used in fistula repair
T
b. Cusco’s speculum can be
used in its place F
c. Its use requires one
assistant T
d. Its use requires more
than one assistant F
e. Autoclaving is
contraindicated F

DERMOID CYST
• Most common benign
tumour of the ovary T
• Most common
neoplasm diagnosed
during pregnancy T
• Most common germ cell
tumour T
• Commonest tumour to
undergo torsion T

Ovarian Tumours
• Call Exner Bodies-
Granulosa cell tumour T
• Walthard Cell nest-
Brenner Tumour T
• Signet Ring-Krukuberg
tumour T
• Hobnail Cell- Clear cell
tumour T
• Schiller Duval Bodies-
Endodermal sinus tumour
T

CONCERNING OVARIAN TUMOURS
• Skin, Teeth and
cartillage- Teratoma T
• Psammoma bodies-
Serous epithelial
Tumours T
• Pseudomyxoma
peritonei- Mucinous
tumours T
• Rienke’s Crystal- Hilus
cell tumour T

• BILATERAL in 10-15% of
cases T
• Malignant change occurs
in 0.5-2% of cases T
• Most common malignant
transformation is
squamous cell tumour
• Lining epithelium is
columnar epithelium F

About the procedure shown
a) It is an endoscopic
procedure T
b) It facilitates directed biopsy
T
c) Areas of CIN appear white
when the cervix is painted
with Lugol’s iodine during
this procedure F
d) It can be used to assess
vascular patterns on the
cervix T
e) The instrument used is a
monocular microscope F

a) It is used for emergency
contraception F
b) The duration of use is 10
years F
c) It can cause
amenorrhoea T
d) It can be used as part of a
hormone replacement
therapy regimen T
e) It contains oestrogen and
progestin F

This instrument
management of ante-
partum haemorrhage F
b) A systolic blood pressure of
90mmHg is an indication
for its use T
c) When weaning a patient off
it, it is removed in the
reverse order i.e from no 5
to no 1 F
d) A pulse rate of 60/min is an
indication for its use F
e) It can be employed at every
level of care T

Regarding this lesion
a) It is caused by herpes
simplex virus F
b) Similar lesions may be
found on the vagina,
cervix and uterus F
c) They are generally
painless T
d) Spontaneous healing
occurs within 3 weeks F
e) Pregnancy can make the
lesions large T

Mechanism of Ureteric injury
• Crushing T
• Laceration T
• Ligation with sutures T
• Ischaemia/devasculrisat
ion T
• Segmental resection T
• Transection T

Concerning this instrument and its use
a. It is used in a minimally invasive
procedure T
b. Intestinal obstruction is a
contraindication for its use F
c. The procedure can be performed
under general anaesthesia T
d. It is useful in the diagnosis of
uterine perforation F
e. It is contraindicated in the
treatment of endometriosis F

66. Should be inserted between Day
1-5. T
67. Levels of hormones in the blood
return to normal in a week. T
68. Biodegradable. F
69. Failure rate of 2 in 1000 F
70. Discontinuation rate of 15-25% F
10/29/2018 83Okechukwu Ugwu

61. Routinely done for primigravida
F
62. This type bleeds less T
63. Restrictive used increases
anterior perineal traumaT
64. May have a role in management
of fetal distress T
65. The technique with best
outcome is unknown T

56. Two thirds of patients bleed PV T
57. Transvaginal USS is
contraindicated F
58. Bleeding is mainly maternal T
59. Hospital admission yields better
outcome than being at home F
60. Risk of morbidly adherent
placenta in cases of 3 previous CS
and Placenta previa is 45%. T

51. Time consuming T
52. 10-15cm long T
53. Preferred in Misgav-Ladach
technique F
54. Utilizes blunt dissection F
55. Has cosmetic appeal T

46. This is a pneumatic anti-shock
garment. F
47. One size fits all F
48. Made of Neoprene T
49. Segments 4, 5 and 6 should be
applied by only one person. T
50. It is a definitive treatment. F

41. Cost effective investigation T
42. This is risk factor for ectopic
gestation T
43. Live birth rate is reduced by 35%
in patients with this condition
undergoing IVF-ET FALSE
44. Salpingectomy or proximal
occlusion is indicated. T
45. NNT in IVF patients undergoing
treatment for this condition is 6. T

36. Incidence of 0.2% T
37. Delivery by extension F
38. Presenting diameter is 9.5cm T
39. Anterior neck mass is the most
common course. F
40. Mentoposerior is better
delivered by CS. T

31. Provides illumination and
magnification T
32. 3 consecutive inadequate pap
smear samples is an indication T
33. Ablative technique may be used
for glandular disease. F
34. CCI has a maximum score of 10 T
35. It is unsatisfactory when the
endocervical canal is not visualised
F

26. Rupture of this type may be
catastrophic T
27. Typically ruptures around 11weeks.
F
28. Progesterone assay could help
localize gestation. F
29. Wedge resection is the
management of choice. T
30. Total removal of the ipsilateral
tube is recommended. T

21. Cervical length of less 25mm at
24wks in a primigravida is an
indication F
22. Outcome is the same as no
intervention in multiple gestation. F
23. Removal of Shirodkar type
requires anaesthesia T
24. Immediate removal following
PPROM optimisises outcome. F
25. Recent evidence supports
laparoscopic over laparotomy for
abdominal cerclage F

16. HPV is a double stranded DNA
virus. T
17. Smoking doubles risk of Ca
cervix T
18. Risk due to COCP falls to
baseline in 10 years after stopping.
T
19. Presence of nodal involvement
increases mortality by 30% stage for
stage. F
20. Pregnancy does not adversely
affect outcome. T

11. Commoner in multipara T
12. Usually symptomatic F
13. Intermenstrual bleeding is a
recognized symptom T
14. Recurrence rate of about 3% F
15. Monsel paste has a role in
controlling bleeding post-avulsion T

1. Also known as pathological
retraction ring T
2. Formed between thinned out
upper segment and lower
segment F
3. Contractions wane off with time
in primigravid women T
4. Electrolytes derangement is
common T
5. Increased risk of PPH T

6. Spermatozoa must be
immobilized before injection. T
7. Inverted microscopy is utilized T
8. When indicated, male
karyotyping should be done. T
9. ‘OAT’ syndrome is a
contraindication. F
10. Holding pipette provides gentle
sunction. T

About this instrument and its use
a. This instrument is called the
Mayo’s scissors. F
b. The procedure must be carried
out on all primigravid women. F
c. Its use can lead to a 3rd degree
perineal tear T
d. Dysmenorrhea is a late
complication of its use F
e. The midline incision is easier to
repair than the medio-lateral
type T

About what is shown
management of cervical
stenosis F
b) It is an absorbable tape F
c) It is usually removed at
gestational age of 36 weeks
F
d) It should be removed when
there are preterm
contractions F
e) When its use is indicated, it
is inserted after the second
missed period F

The procedure shown
a) The patient should lie in the
left lateral position F
b) The tip of the spatula is
introduced into the cervical
canal and the instrument
rotated through 180
degrees F
c) A cytobrush can be used in
place of Ayre’s spatula T
d) Samples taken are
immediately fixed with 70%
alcohol F
e) The cervix is painted with
Lugol’s iodine prior to
sample collection F

Features of delayed ureteric injury
Prolonged ileus T
Watery vaginal discharge T
Prolonged high output
from drains T
Fever/sepsis. T
Persistent flank/
abdominal pain T
Flank mass T
Elevated creatinine or
BUN T

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