Internal Medicine Board Review Flashcards - This eBook contains 50 Rheumatology Flashcards. The Flashcards are review questions and can be used to study for medical board exams including the USMLE Step Exams and the ABIM Internal Medicine Exam. More questions can be found at www.knowmedge.com

1. Rheumatology
Includes 50 Flashcards for Board Exam prep
www.knowmedge.com
INTERNAL MEDICINE BOARD REVIEW FLASHCARDS

2. K N O W M E D G E
INTERNALMEDICINEBOARDREVIEWFLASHCARDS
Rheumatology
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4. Whcih small vessel vasculitis has positive
c-ANCA and both lung and renal
involvement?
Question 1
Wegener granulomatosis
Answer 1

5. ________ is the vasculitis that is most
likely associated with hepatitis B
infection.
Question 2
Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN)
Answer 2

6. What condition is being described here?
"Large vessel vasculitis that is associated
with new onset of headache and
elevated ESR levels"
Question 3
Giant cell (temporal) arteritis
Answer 3

7. What two extra-intestinal manifestations
of IBD will mirror the GI condition?
Question 4
Erythema nodosum and arthritis
Answer 4

8. Thougn not used in diagnosis, what HLA
marker can often be seen in
seronegative spondyloarthropathies?
Question 5
HLA-B27
Answer 5

9. Foamy macrophages on PAS stain is
often seen in what condition?
Question 6
Whipple's Disease
Answer 6

10. A patient suffering from renal crisis
because of diffuse cutaneous systemic
sclerosis (scleroderma) typically develops
this condition within ____ months after
systemic sclerosis is first diagnosed.
Question 7
48
Answer 7

11. True or False: Captopril is commonly
used for patients with scleroderma renal
crisis.
Question 8
True
Answer 8

12. True or False: Steroids are useful in
treating scleroderma renal crisis
Question 9
False. Steroids can exacerbate
scleroderma renal crisis
Answer 9

13. What are the two major forms of
scleroderma?
Question 10
Diffuse and Limited scleroderma
Answer 10

14. What type of scleroderma is this
describing? "Large areas of the skin are
rapidly affected and thickened. In some
case, internal organs are affected as
well."
Question 11
Diffuse scleroderma
Answer 11

15. What is the initial step for a patient
symptomatic for atlanto-odontoid
subluxation?
Question 12
Cervical spine xray with flexion and
extension views
Answer 12

16. In a patient symptomatic for atlanto-
odontoid subluxation, what is the level
of potential compression on a cervical
xray that would indicate surgery?
Question 13
8mm
Answer 13

17. True or False: Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
can result as a cause of Rheumatoid
Arthritis
Question 14
True
Answer 14

18. True or False: Multiple sexual partners is
a risk factor for osteoarthritis and septic
arthritis
Question 15
False; Multiple sexual partners is not a
risk factor for osteoarthritis. It is,
however, a risk factor for septic arthritis.
Answer 15

19. The rotator cuff is a group of four
muscles that support the shoulder joint.
What are the four muscles?
Question 16
Supraspinatus, Infaspinatus, Teres minor,
Subcapularis
Answer 16

20. Pain upon abduction of left shoulder and
pain and tenderness over the anterior
bicipital grove is a description of what
condition?
Question 17
Bicipital tendinitis
Answer 17

21. True or False: Apical pulmonary fibrosis
is a late and rare manifestation of
ankylosing spondylitis.
Question 18
True
Answer 18

22. What is the treatment for Relapsing
Polychondritis?
Question 19
Corticosteroids, Dapsone or Colchicine
Answer 19

23. ___________ is bone death due to a lack
of blood supply. It can affect any bone
though it primarily affects the joints at
the hip, shoulder and knee.
Question 20
Avascular necrosis
Answer 20

24. True or False: Rheumatoid arthritis has
many extra-articular manifestations as it
is a systemic disease but is usually not
directly associated with avascular
necrosis.
Question 21
True
Answer 21

25. Which test is performed by the examiner
placing one hand at the lateral knee joint
and the other at the medial aspect of the
distal tibia. Stress is applied at the knee.
Question 22
Valgus Test
Answer 22

26. Which test is performed by the examiner
placing one hand at the medial knee
joint and the other at the lateral aspect
of the distal fibula. Stress is applied at
the knee.
Question 23
Varus Test
Answer 23

27. Which test is performed by the physician
grasping the patient’s heel with one
hand and the knee with the other hand.
The tibia is rotated internally to assess
the lateral meniscus.
Question 24
McMurray Test
Answer 24

28. True or False: A patient with
osteoarthritis interested in using a cane
should place it on the same side as the
affected joint - generally the hips, hands,
neck and lower back.
Question 25
False; A patient interested in using a
cane should place it on the opposite side
of the affected joint
Answer 25

29. What supplements should patients with
osteoporosis continue taking indefinitely
to build stronger and denser bones?
Question 26
Vitamin D and Calcium
Answer 26

30. What condition is described here?
"Condition that produces a negative
birefringence and monosodium urate
crystals when arthrocentesis is
performed"
Question 27
Gout
Answer 27

31. With what condition would a patient
have pain in the heel and which is usually
worse in the morning than when the
individual takes his or her first steps?
Question 28
Plantar fasciitis
Answer 28

32. What common sports injury comes from
the inside portion of the knee, and one
in which you would not expect to hear
any popping sounds?
Question 29
Lateral collateral ligament (LCL) tear
Answer 29

33. What condition, more likely to be seen in
individuals with multiple sexual partners,
results in an inflamed joint (often the
knee)?
Question 30
Septic arthritis
Answer 30

34. Antibody that is involved in cold
agglutinin hemolytic anemia
Question 31
IgM
Answer 31

35. Antibody that is involved in warm
agglutinin hemolytic anemia
Question 32
IgG
Answer 32

36. Antibody that is associated with type 1
hypersensitivity reactions
Question 33
IgE
Answer 33

37. True or False: Lisinopril is often used to
control hypertension in pregnant
patients
Question 34
False: Lisinopril, like all ACE inhibitors
and angiotensin receptor blockers, is
absolutely contraindicated to control
blood pressure in pregnancy due to
teratogenic effects.
Answer 34

38. What condition is described? "Condition
that reveals bronchoalveololar lavage
(BAL) CD4/CD8 ratio of 4:1 or greater"
Question 35
Sarcoidosis
Answer 35

39. Do pre-menopausal women have an
increased or decreased risk of
developing gout?
Question 36
Decreased risk
Answer 36

40. 24-hour urine uric acid levels greater
than what level indicates over-
producers?
Question 37
Greater than 600 mg/dl
Answer 37

41. In addition to allopurinol, what is
another medication that is a xanthine
oxidase inhibitor?
Question 38
Febuxostat
Answer 38

42. What is the goal uric acid level to
prevent further gouty attacks?
Question 39
Less than 6 mg/dl
Answer 39

43. What agent is used to prevent further
gouty attacks in under-excreters of uric
acid?
Question 40
Probenecid
Answer 40

44. What is the most common joint affected
in pseudogout?
Question 41
Knee
Answer 41

45. Which medication should not be given
concurrently with allopurinol to prevent
blood dyscrasias?
Question 42
Azathioprine
Answer 42

46. What type of medication is allopurinol?
Question 43
Xanthine oxidase inhibitor
Answer 43

47. If patient has normal renal function,
what is the drug of choice for acute
gouty attack in the first 24 hours?
Question 44
Colchicine
Answer 44

48. What is the most common cause of
pseudogout?
Question 45
Hyperparathyroidism
Answer 45

49. What kind of birefringence would you
see in pseudogout?
Question 46
Positive birefringence
Answer 46

50. What kind of crystals would you expect
to see with pseudogout?
Question 47
Rhomboid shaped crystals
Answer 47

51. What would the WBC range be if
arthrocentesis was done for
pseudogout?
Question 48
5,000-50,000/microliter
Answer 48

52. What condition is often caused by
compression of the cutaneous femoral
nerve seen in overweight individuals
with tight-fitting clothes?
Question 49
Meralgia paresthetica
Answer 49

53. What condition is associated with
decreased TSH and increased free T4
index?
Question 50
Primary hyperthyroidism
Answer 50

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