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# Environmental engineering ii objective questions

Lecture notes of Environmental Engineering-II as per Solapur university syllabus of TE CIVIL.
Prepared by
Prof S S Jahagirdar,
Associate Professor,
N K Orchid college of Engg and Technology,
Solapur

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### Environmental engineering ii objective questions

1. 1. Environmental Engineering-II Objective Question Bank TE (CIVIL) Div- A and B Page 1 Environmental Engineering- II Unit Wise Objective Question Bank Unit-I Collection and Conveyance of sewage 1. In absence of exact data the wastewater flow is considered as _____% of water supply. a) 70 b) 80 c) 90 d) 95 2. For a town with 20,000 to 50,000 population the population density per hectare is _____________ a) 150 – 200 b) 200 – 250 c) 250 – 300 d) 300 – 400 3. Design period of a sewer network is considered as __________ years. a) 15 b) 20 c) 25 d) 30 4. For average sewage production of 135 Lit/c/day the population should be __________ Lacs. a) < 2 b) 2 – 5 c) 5 – 7 d) 7 – 10 5. Minimum rate of groundwater infiltration for sewers laid below ground water table is considered as __________ Lit/km/d. a) 200 b) 300 c) 500 d) 1000 6. Maximum monthly peak flow is ____________ times annual average flow. a) 1.2 b) 1.4 c) 1.5 d) 1.8 7. Peak factor for contributory population 20,000 to 50,000 is ___________ a) 1.5 b) 2.25 c) 2.5 d) 3 8. In Kuichling’s formula of rainfall intensity the unit of ‘t’ is __________ a) Sec b) Min c) Hr d) Day 9. Self cleansing velocity to carry wastewater with fine sand and clay is ___________ m/s. a) 0.075 b) 0.10 c) 0.15 d) 0.20
2. 2. Environmental Engineering-II Objective Question Bank TE (CIVIL) Div- A and B Page 2 10. Non scouring velocity (m/s) for stoneware sewer material is ________ a) 0.6 – 1.2 b) 1.2 – 2.5 c) 2.5 – 3 d) 3 – 4.5 11. In a circular sewer for d/D = 0.5 the r/R is _________ a) 0.857 b) 1.0 c) 1.110 d) ≥ 1.110 12. Dry Weather Flow (DWF) is the flow in sewers available in ________ periods. a) Rainy b) Non-rainfall c) Both a and b d) None of these 13. Pumping machinery is designed for period ___________ years. a) 1 0 b) 15 c) 2 0 d) 30 14. For a town having population above 1,00,000 the density of population considered is _______ people/hectare. a) 250 – 300 b) 300 – 350 c) 350 – 1000 d) 1000 – 2000 15. For population more than 10 lacs the rate of water supply is _________ lit/capita/day. a) 50 – 100 b) 100 – 150 c) 150 – 200 d) 200 – 250 16. For population between 5 to 10 lacs the sewage production is ________ lit/capita/day. a) 110 – 120 b) 130 – 140 c) 150 – 170 d) 180 – 200 17. The value of Manning’s N for smooth plastic is____________ a) 0.011 b) 0.010 c) 0.013 d) 0.012 18. The value of Hazen and William’s coefficient C for A.C. pipes is ___________ a) 110 b) 120 c) 130 d) 140 19. Max. permissible velocity for unlined storm water drain for rock and gravel is ____________ m/sec. a) 1.0 b) 1.5 c) 2.0 d) 2.1 20. Separate system of sewerage is a type of _____________ system. a) Water carriage b) Conservancy c) Both a & b d) None of these 21. Match the pairs Indicators Tests a. Starch i. COD
3. 3. Environmental Engineering-II Objective Question Bank TE (CIVIL) Div- A and B Page 3 b. Ferroin ii. DO c. PP and MO iii. Chlorides d. Potassium chromate iv. Alkalinity/Acidity 22. For a town having population upto 5000 the density of population per hectare is considered as _______________ a) 50 – 75 b) 75 – 150 c) 100 – 200 d) 200 – 300 23. The design period for main sewers is considered as ____________ years. a) 10 b) 20 c) 30 d) 40 24. For population below 2 lacs the rate of water supply is considered as ______Lit/ c/d. a) 100 – 130 b) 130 – 160 c) 150 – 170 d) 180 – 200 25. For population between 2 to 5 lacs the sewage production is considered as _____________ Lit/c/d. a) 100 – 110 b) 110 – 120 c) 130 – 140 d) 150 – 170 26. In Babbit’s formula Qmax = (5 x Qavg)/ (P0.2 ) the value of P is restricted to maximum _________ a) 1 b) 10 c) 100 d) 1000 27. For contributory population upto 20,000 the peak factor is ___________ a) 2.5 b) 3.0 c) 3.5 d) 4 28. Kvichling’s impermeability factor for water tight roof surface is _____________ a) 0.7 to 0.95 b) 0.85 to 0.90 c) 0.9 to 1.0 d) 1 to 2 29. As per U.S. Minstry of health formula value of constant a for 5 to 20 min. storm duration is ________ a) 10 b) 20 c) 30 d) 40 30. For sewer diameter 15 to 25 cm the self cleansing velocity required is _____________ cm/sec. a) 75 b) 100 c) 125 d) 150 31. For transport of fine gravel the self cleansing velocity required is ________ cm/sec. a) 15 b) 20 c) 25 d) 30
4. 4. Environmental Engineering-II Objective Question Bank TE (CIVIL) Div- A and B Page 4 32. For circular sewer running fill the value of H.M.D. is _________ a) D/4 b) D/2 c) D d) 2D 33. Spacing of manholes is recommended by IS __________________ a) 800 b) 456 c) 2470 d) 1742 34. The design period of sewer is _________ years. a) 15 b) 20 c) 30 d) 25 35. Pumping machinery is designed for _________ years. a) 15 b) 20 c) 25 d) 30 36. As per CPHEEO for town having population 50,000 to 1,00,000 the density of population per hectare is ________. a) 150-250 b) 250-300 c) 300-350 d) 350-500 37. For population below 2,00,000 the sewage production is _____. a) 50-100 b) 75-100 c) 110-120 d) 120-150 38. In Babit’s formula for finding out variations in the rate of sewage the minimum value of P is _____. a) 0 b) 0.5 c) 0.85 d) 1.0 39. For design of sewers the peak factor for population above 7,50,000 is considered as _______. a) 2.0 b) 2.25 c) 2.5 d) 3.0 40. In hydraulic design of sewers Bazin’s constant k in Bazin’s formula for good earth channel is ______. a) 0,25 b) 0.50 c) 0.75 d) 0.92 41. Self cleansing velocity for transport of fine sand and clay is _____cm/sec. a) 5 b) 7.5 c) 15 d) 30 42. Self cleansing velocity for sewer having diameter above 60 cm is _______cm/sec. a) 60 b) 75 c) 100 d) 150 43. In typical wastewater BOD5 at 200 C for weak concentration is ______ mg/lit a) 50 b) 110
5. 5. Environmental Engineering-II Objective Question Bank TE (CIVIL) Div- A and B Page 5 c) 220 d) 300 44. HMD of sewer running full is _______. a) D/4 b) D/2 c) D d) 2D 45. BOD5 at 20°C of strong domestic waste water is about ______mg/L. a) 300 b) 400 c) 500 d) 600 46. The sewerage system originates from ___________. a) Outfall sewer b) Main sewer c) House sewer d) None of these 47. A sewer which receives the discharge from a number of independent houses is known as _____________. a) Intercepting sewer b) House sewer c) Lateral sewer d) None of these 48. Combined sewer system carries ______________. a) Sewage and storm water b) Only storm water c) Only sewage d) Some times LPG gases 49. The sewer which transports the sewage to the point of treatment is called _____________. a) House sewer b) Lateral sewer c) Outfall sewer d) None of these 50. The ratio of mainimum hourly flow to the average flow of sewage is ____________. a) 1/3 b) 1/2 c) 1/4 d) 3 51. The most suitable section of a sewer in a separate sewerage system is ___________. a) Rectangular b) Circular c) Egg shaped d) Parabolic 52. The most suitable section of a sewer in a combined sewerage system is ___________. a) Rectangular b) Circular c) Egg shaped d) Parabolic 53. The flow velocity of sewer does not depend upon ____________. a) Its grade b) Its length c) Its hydraulic mean depth d) Its roughness 54. Manholes are made circular : _______________________. a) For architectural reasons b) To strengthen the cover c) To prevent falling of cover into the manhole d) To make entry convinient
6. 6. Environmental Engineering-II Objective Question Bank TE (CIVIL) Div- A and B Page 6 55. Manholes are generally located ____________________________________. a) At all changes of direction of sewer b) At all changes of gradients of sewer c) At all junctions of different sewers d) All of above 56. _____________gas/gases can be found in sewers. a) H2S b) CO2 c) CH4 d) All of above 57. Appropriate percentage of water in the sewage is ________%. a) 90 b) 99 c) 99.90 d) 99.99 58. Well oxidized sewage will contain nitrogen, in the form of ___________. a) nitrites b) nitrates c) Free ammonia d) All of above 59. Imhoff cone is used to measure ______________ solids in the sewage. a) Volatile b) Suspended c) Settleable d) None of these 60. Minimum DO prescribed for a river stream to avoid fish kill is ______mg/lit a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 10 61. For BOD test standard temperature refers to ____0 C. a) 10 b) 105 c) 20 d) 550 62. In COD test organic matter is oxidized by ________________. a) K2Cr2O7 b) H2SO4 c) K2CrO4 d) All of above 63. COD is always _____________ than BOD. a) lesser b) greater c) Equal d) No such relation 64. In COD test, ____________________ is used as oxidizing agent. a) Potassium dichromate b) Sulphuric acid c) Mercuric sulphate d) None of these 65. In solids test, for finding SS concentration, ___________________filter paper is used. a) Whatman’s b) Catman c) Batman d) Hatman 66. Before discharging the foul sewage in the rivers, it is generally treated
7. 7. Environmental Engineering-II Objective Question Bank TE (CIVIL) Div- A and B Page 7 by_________________________________________________________. a) Screen chamber and grit removal tank b) Primary sedimentation tank c) Activated sludge process followed by disinfection d) All of above 67. With self cleansing velocity of the sewer ________________________________. a) Silting occurs at bottom b) Scouring occurs at bottom c) Both silting and scouring occurs at bottom d) Neither silting nor scouring occurs at bottom 68. In COD test organic matter is oxidized by Potassieum Dichromate in presence of _____________________________. a) HCL b) H2SO4 c) HNO3 d) All of above 69. The wastewater from bathrooms, kitchens, washing places and wash basins is known as_______________. a) Sullage b) Rubbish c) Refuse d) None of these 70. The ground water which finds entry into sewers through leaks is known as___________________. a) Subsoil water b) Surface water c) Polluted water d) All of above 71. In COD test, _______________ acts as a catalyst which enables dichromate to oxidize low molecular weight fatty acids and straight chain aliphatic compounds. a) Silver sulphate b) Mercuric sulphate c) Sewage d) None of these 72. In COD test, ______________ is added in sample to prevent interference of chlorides in wastewater. a) Silver sulphate b) Mercuric sulphate c) Sewage d) None of these 73. Choose correct option and tick mark the same in the box provided against it : Standard BOD means ________________ a) BOD measures after 7 days at 27°C b) BOD measures after 1 days at 25°C c) BOD measures after 5 days at 20°C d) None of these 74. Quantity of wastewater flowing through sewers in dry season is known as _____________ a) WWF b) DWF c) Storm water flow d) Sullage
8. 8. Environmental Engineering-II Objective Question Bank TE (CIVIL) Div- A and B Page 8 75. _______________ sewer collects sewage directly from houses. a) Trunk b) Lateral c) Sub main d) All of above 76. Pick out the odd one ____________ a) Sutro weir b) Parshall flume c) Proportional flow weir d) V-notch
9. 9. Environmental Engineering-II Objective Question Bank TE (CIVIL) Div- A and B Page 9 Unit-II Unit operations 1. ASP is a ___________ treatment. a) anaerobic b) aerobic c) facultative d) none of these 2. Medium bar screens have clear openings of __________ mm. a) 10 to 20 b) 20 to 50 c) 50 to 75 d) 75 to 100 3. Molecular weight of Alum is _______ a) 500 b) 670.2 c) 666.7 d) 730.1 4. Hydraulic loading rate for low rate trickling filters is __________ m3 /d/m2 . a) 0.5 to 2 b) 1 to 4 c) 2 to 5 d) 5 to 8 5. Organic loading rate for high rate trickling filter is ___________ kg/d/m3 . a) 100 – 400 b) 400 – 600 c) 500 – 1000 d) 1000 – 2000 6. Lower F/M ratioin a conventional ASP will mean __________________. a) Lower BOD removal b) Higher BOD removal c) No effect on BOD removal d) None of these 7. The term sludge age is associated with _______. a) Aeration b) Sedimentation c) Trickling filter d) None of these 8. For low rate trickling filters hydraulic loading rate considered is ________m3 /m2 /d. a) 0.5 -1 b) 1 - 4 c) 4 - 6 d) 6 - 10 9. _____________ is recycled in ASP. a) Sludge b) Sewage c) Screenings d) Grit material 11. _________________ is recycled in trickling filter. a) Sludge b) Sewage c) Screenings d) Grit material 12. Length of grit chamber shall be in the range of _______________ a) 10 to 18 b) 2 to 5 c) 15 to 20 d) More than 20
10. 10. Environmental Engineering-II Objective Question Bank TE (CIVIL) Div- A and B Page 10 13. Unit of SVI is ____________. a) ml/gm b) mm/gm c) Lit/kg d) None of above 14. Pick out the odd one - _________. a) Screen chamber b) Grit chamber c) PST d) Septic tank 15. ______________________________ is essentially a extended aeration system a) Oxidation pond b) Oxidation ditch c) Grit chamber d) Septic tank 16. Grit chamber removes particles having Sp. Gr. in the range of _____ to _____. a) 2.2.,2.65 b) 2.4,2.65 c) 2,3 d) 1,1.5 17. Purpose of screen chamber is , to _______________________________________. a) Remove large Suspended Solids c) Protect the pumps from clogging b) Prevent the pipes from clogging d) All of above 18. Purpose of grit chamber is, to _______________________________________. a) Remove heavy settleable solids c) Protect the pumps from wear and abrasion b) Protect digesters d) All of above 19. Velocity control devices are provided in _____________. a) Screen chambers b) Aeration tank c) Grit chamber d) PST 20. Detention period varies from __________ sec, in grit chambers a) 45 to 90 b) 100 to 150 c) 10 to 45 d) None of these 21. _______________________ can be used to control velocity of flow in grit chambers. a) Sutro weir b) Proportional flow weir c) Parabolic grit chamber d) All of above 22. Horizontal flow velocity in case of grit chambers should be _______cm/sec. a) 15 to 30 b) 30 to 45 c) 45 to 60 d) 1 to 3 23. Proportional flow weir can be used in grit chamber, when cross section is of _______________ shape. a) Rectangular b) Circular
11. 11. Environmental Engineering-II Objective Question Bank TE (CIVIL) Div- A and B Page 11 c) Parabolic d) Triangular 24. Parshall Flume can be used in grit chamber, when cross section is of _______________ shape. a) Parabolic b) Circular c) Rectangular d) Triangular 25. Angle of inclination of bars in screen chamber varies from _________0 . a) 30 to 80 b) 10 to 45 c) 90 to 120 d) None of these 26. Facultative bacteria are those which can survive in _________________. a) Presence of oxygen b) Absence of free oxygen c) Both a) and b) d) Liquid nitrogen 27. In trickling filters, slime layer formed is aerobic up to depth of ____________mm. a) 0.1 to 0.2 b) 0.5 to 0.6 c) 0.01 to 0.02 d) 0.9 to 1.0 28. _______ rate trickling filters require large area. a) High b) Low c) Falling head d) Constant head 29. In case of trickling filter ventilation takes place because of __________ difference between, sewage and surrounding air. a) Level b) Colour c) Temperature d) All of above 30. Depth of low rate trickling filter varied from _____________m. a) 1.8 to 3 b) 2.5 to 4 c) 3 to 5 d) 1 to 1.8 31. Under drainage system is provided in trickling filters, to ______________________________. a) Carry away liquid effluent b) To carry away sloughed biological solids c) To distribute air through the bed d) All of above 32. Under drainage system in low rate trickling filter should run _______________. a) Full b) Partially full (less than 50%) c) Empty d) None of these 33. In low rate trickling filters, filter walls may be made of _______________________. a) Brick masonry b) Stone masonry c) RCC d) All of above 34. For low rate trickling filters, speed of rotation of distributor arm is _____rpm for small sized distributors. a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
12. 12. Environmental Engineering-II Objective Question Bank TE (CIVIL) Div- A and B Page 12 35. Influent BOD5 of low rate trickling filter is 300 mg/lit and effluent BOD5 is 30 mg/lit. The efficiency of trickling filter is equal to _____________ %. a) 80 b) 50 c) 0.9 d) 90 36. A trickling filter is operating with efficiency of 90%, if its effluent BOD5 is 25 mg/lit, then its influent BOD5 would be __________mg/lit. a) 250 b) 0.250 c) 350 d) 450 37. A trickling filter is operating with efficiency of 90%, if its influent BOD5 is 350 mg/lit, then its effluent BOD5 would be __________mg/lit. a) 250 b) 0.250 c) 315 d) 450 38. Moisture content of sludge obtained from trickling filter system is as high as ____% a) 99 b) 100 c) 98 d) 95.99 39. Effluent obtained from low trickling filter is highly ________________. a) Nitrified b) Stabilised c) Both a) and b) d) None of these 40. ______________ consists of returning a portion of the treated or partly treated sewage to the treatment. a) Recalculation b) Reaeration c) Prechlorination d) Recirculation 41. Secondary effluent from the high rate trickling filter is ____________________. a) Not fully oxidised b) Brownish black in colour c) Contains fine particles d) All of above 42. Secondary effluent from the low rate trickling filter is ____________________. a) Fully oxidized b) Black in colour c) Contains light fine particles d) All of above 43. Effluent obtained from high trickling filter is ________________. a) Not fully Nitrified b) Not fully Stabilised c) Nitrified d) Stabilised 44. For high rate trickling filters recirculation ratio usually ranges from _______. a) 0.5 to 3 b) 0.6 to 8 c) 6 to 5 d) 0.5 to 1 45. Attached growth process include ________________________________. a) ASP b) Aerated lagoon c) Sludge digestion systems d) All of above 46. Sewage in the aeration tank is referred as _____________.
13. 13. Environmental Engineering-II Objective Question Bank TE (CIVIL) Div- A and B Page 13 a) Black liquor b) Brown liquor c) Mixed liquor d) Sweet liquor 47. If volume of aeration tank is 15500 m3 and influent flow rate is 50000 m3 /d, then aeration period of ASP is ______hrs. a) 7.44 b) 6.55 c) 8.44 d) 10 48. In ASP, contact stabilization is also known as _____________. a) Biosorption b) Adsorption c) Absorption d) Chemisorption 49. Compression settling occurs in ________________________. a) Screen chamber b) Secondary settling tanks c) Grit chamber d) All of above 50. Rotating biological contactor is _____________ process. a) Suspended growth b) Attached growth c) Dual growth d) None of these
14. 14. Environmental Engineering-II Objective Question Bank TE (CIVIL) Div- A and B Page 14 Unit-III Anaerobic treatment and low cost treatment 1. Oxidation pond is type of __________ pond. a) aerobic b) anaerobic c) facultative d) none of these 2. Range of Mesophilic digestion is _____________ °C a) 10 to 40 b) 40 to 60 c) 60 to 80 d) 80 to 100 3. Water closet has __________ equivalent fixture units in septic tank design. a) 3 b) 2 c) 1 d) 0.5 4. Depth of lagoon is restricted to ________m. a) 1 -1.5 b) 2.5 to 4 c) 4 to 6 d) 5 to 10 5. Septic tank is _________________________. a) Settling tank b) Digestion tank c) Both a and b d) None of these 6. _______________ is a essentially an extended aeration activated sludge process. a) Oxidation ditch b) Oxidation pond c) Aerated lagoon d) None of these 7. In case of oxidation ditch, sewage is aerated by __________________. a) Surface rotor b) Diffused aerator c) Ventilator d) All of above 8. Septic tank is _________________ type of treatment. a) aerobic b) anaerobic c) facultative d) all of above 9. Example/s of aerobic treatment unit/s is/are ___________________. a) ASP b) Trickling filter c) Oxidation ditch d) All of above 10. Example/s of anaerobic treatment unit/s is/are ___________________. a) Septic tank b) Anaerobic lagoon c) Anaerobic sludge digestion d) All of above 11. Depth of facultative pond is in the range of ______m a) 1 to 1.5 b) 2 to 3 c) 0.5 to 1 d) 2.5 to 5 12. Depth of anaerobic ponds ranges from __________m . a) 1 to 1.5 b) 2 to 3
15. 15. Environmental Engineering-II Objective Question Bank TE (CIVIL) Div- A and B Page 15 c) 0.5 to 1 d) 2.5 to 5 … 13. _______________________ is observed in oxidation ponds. a) Bacteria-algal symbiosis b) COD - BOD symbiosis c) Algae-protozoa symbiosis d) None of these 14. Bacteria-algal symbiosis is observed in ____________________. a) ASP b) Trickling filter c) Oxidation ponds d) None of these 15. Oxidation ditch is essentially ________________ process. a) Extended aeration b) Trickling filter c) RBC d) UASB 16. a) b) c) d) 17. a) b) c) d) 18. a) b) c) d) 19. a) b) c) d) 20. a) b) c) d) 21. a) b) c) d) 22. a) b) c) d) 23. a) b) c) d) 24. a) b) c) d)
16. 16. Environmental Engineering-II Objective Question Bank TE (CIVIL) Div- A and B Page 16 Unit-IV Disposal of waste water 1. In the zone of active decomposition D.O.% is __________ a) ≤ 40 b) 40 – 50 c) 50 – 100 d) ≥100 2. The value of self purification constant for swift streams is ____________ a) 1.5 – 2.0 b) 2.0 – 3.0 c) 3.0 – 5.0 d) ≥ 5.0 3. The value of self purification constant for small ponds and back water is in the range _______________ a) 0.25 – 0.5 b) 0.5 – 1.0 c) 1.0 – 1.5 d) 1.5 – 2.0 4. For finding deoxygenation constant for 4 to 20°C temp. range the value of θ is ______________ a) 1.0 b) 1.55 c) 1.30 d) 1.135 5. If the dilution factor is above ______ then no treatment to waste water is required. a) Less than 150 b) 150 - 300 c) 300 - 500 d) Above 500 6. DO level in the stream may be zero in the zone of _______. a) Clear water b) Degradation c) Active decomposition d) Recovery 7. DO value of the stream is maximum at ____________. a) noon b) morning c) night d) throughout the day 8. Sewage disposal by dilution is most preferred, where: __________________. a) The sewage arriving at outfall point is fresh and non septic b) There are strong forward currents c) Discharge in water body is not low d) All of above 9. Industrial waste with flow rate of 20 m3 /day with temp of 400 C is being discharged in to the river with flow rate of 400 m3 /d having temperature of 200 C. The temperature of resulting mix would be ____ 0 C. a) 20.95 b) 10.95 c) 20 d) 40 10. DO deficit = DOsat – _____________ a) Initial DO b) Final DO c) Actual DO d) None of these
17. 17. Environmental Engineering-II Objective Question Bank TE (CIVIL) Div- A and B Page 17 11. If in self-purification of river study, critical time is 2.4 days and velocity of flow is 1.2 m/s, then critical distance at which critical DO deficit occurs is_____________ km. a) 248.832 b) 348.9 c) 550.67 d) 1000.0 11. DO saturation values of water at 20°C is ____________ mg/lit. a) 10.20 b) 9.17 c) 8.22 d) 25.0 12. a) b) c) d) 13. a) b) c) d) 14. a) b) c) d) 15. a) b) c) d) 16. a) b) c) d) 17. a) b) c) d) 18. a) b) c) d) 19. a) b) c) d) 20. a) b) c) d)
18. 18. Environmental Engineering-II Objective Question Bank TE (CIVIL) Div- A and B Page 18 Unit-V Solid waste disposal 1. A city with 0.5 to 1 million population the average value of solid waste generated is ____________ kg/c/d. a) 0.10 b) 0.15 c) 0.20 d) 0.25 2. In controlled tipping method of refuse disposal depth of hollow is ________ m. a) 0.5 to 1 b) 1 to 2 c) 2 to 2.5 d) ≥ 2.5 3. In Indore method of composting volume of pit is made as _______ cu.m. a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) 9 4. In trenching method of solid waste disposal depth of trench is ________ m. a) 0.5 to 0.75 b) 0.75 to 1 c) 1 to 2 d) 2 to 4 5. In Bangalore method of composting the refuse is stabilized __________________. a) aerobically b) anaerobically c) burning d) washing 6. In a typical Indian city the garbage is found _____________ %. a) 40 b) 45 c) 50 d) 55 7. In trenching method the length of trench is ____________m. a) 2 to 8 b) 4 to 10 c) 6 to 12 d) 8 to 14 8. The colorific value of refuse from as typical Indian city is ______ kilocal/kg. a) 1500-1800 b) 2000 - 2500 c) 3000 - 4000 d) 4000 - 6000 9. In the method of controlled tipping of disposal of refuse the depth of hollows is restricted to ______m. a) 0.5 to 1m b) 0.6 to 1 c) 1 to 2 d) 2 to 4 10. __________________________ is not a combustible waste. a) Paper b) Wood c) Glass d) Cardboard 11. Which of the following is not a combustible waste? a) paper b) wood c) glass d) clothes 12. Which of following is not a biodegradable waste?
19. 19. Environmental Engineering-II Objective Question Bank TE (CIVIL) Div- A and B Page 19 a) food b) garden trimmings c) rubber d) plastic 13. In composting by trenching method trenches are kept ______________ long a) 4 to 10 m b) 1 to 2 m c) 10 to 15 m d) None of these 14. Density of ash is in between _____________________. a) 700 to 850 kg/m3 b) 70 to 85 kg/m3 c) 7000 to 8500 kg/m3 d) 70 to 80 kg/m3 15. __________________________ is not a combustible waste. a) Paper b) Wood c) Glass d) Cardboard 16. ______________ is ultimate disposal option considered in Municipal Solid (MSW) Waste management. a) Landfill b) Incineration c) Composting d) Open burning 17. _______________ Property/ properties of MSW is/are for landfill design. a) Permeability b) Density c) Field capacity d) All of above 18. Which of the following is not a combustible waste? a) Wood b) cardboard c) bagasse d) Glass 19. Developing countries have_______ per capita daily solid waste generation rate than developed countries. a) Lesser b) Greater c) Same d) None of these 20. Pick out the odd one__________ a) Deep well injection b) Landfilling c) Land farming d) Composting 21. _____________ can be collected from landfills. a) Leachate b) Gas c) Both a) & b) d) None of these 22. In trenching method of solid waste disposal depth of trench is ________ m. a) 0.5 to 0.75 b) 0.75 to 1 c) 1 to 2 d) 2 to 4 23. Abodoned vehicles are ___________ type of solid waste. a) combustible b) Biodegradable c) Bulky d) All of above 24. Leftover Food items require _______ time to disintegrate. a) 1 to 2 weeks b) 1 month c) 1 year d) 24 hrs 25 In India ___ % of solid waste is biodegradable.
20. 20. Environmental Engineering-II Objective Question Bank TE (CIVIL) Div- A and B Page 20 a) 45 to 55 b) 10 to 20 c) 5 to 10 d) None of these 26 Paper waste requires _____ days to disintegrate. a) 10 to 30 b) 30 to 50 c) 60 to 90 d) 1 to 2 27 a) b) c) d) 28 a) b) c) d) 29 a) b) c) d) 30 a) b) c) d)
21. 21. Environmental Engineering-II Objective Question Bank TE (CIVIL) Div- A and B Page 21 Unit-VI Air pollution 1. The layer of atmosphere closest to earth surface is ___________ a) Mesosphere b) Troposphere c) Ionosphere d) None of these 2. The atmosphere extends upto __________ km from earths surface. a) 500 b) 700 c) 900 d) 1100 3. In a strong lapse rate ___________ plume is observed. a) coning b) lofting c) looping d) none of these 4. Gravity settling chamber is used to remove __________ pollutants. a) gaseous b) particulate c) both a and b d) none of these 5. Sulphur dioxide is __________ pollutant. a) primary b) secondary c) tertiary d) both a and b 6. Cyclone separators are used to remove ____________. a) gas b) sulphurdioxide c) particulate matter d) none of these 7. Ozone is present in ____________. a) stratosphere b) mesosphere c) troposphere d) inosphere 8. Gravity settling chamber is used to remove _____________ a) Particulate matter b) Gas c) Acids d) None of these 9. Ozone is a type of _________________ pollutant. a) Primary b) Secondary c) Both a) and b) d) None of these 10. Gravity settling chamber removes particles of size ______microns. a) 5 to 10 b) 10 - 20 c) 20 - 30 d) 40 to 50 11. _______________________________ is secondary pollutant. a) CO b) O3 c) N d) Ar 12. CFC gas is responsible for _________________________. a) Ozone depletion b) CO depletion
22. 22. Environmental Engineering-II Objective Question Bank TE (CIVIL) Div- A and B Page 22 c) Self purification d) Ozone generation 13. Which of following is not a secondary pollutant? ________ a) PAN b) PBN c) Ozone d) CFC 14. Pick out the odd one from the following equipments a) Settling chamber b) ESP c) Bag house d) Scrubber 15. Air pollution causes effects on _________________. a) Biotic world b) Abiotic world c) Both a) and b) d) None of these 16. Which of following is not an anthropogenic cause of air pollution? a) Burning of fossil fuels b) Burning of fire wood c) Agricultural activities d) Burning of forest due to lightening 17. ___________ is secondary pollutant among the following. a) Sulphur dioxide b) Sulphur trioxide c) hydrocarbons d) ozone 18. Primary pollutant formed due to incomplete combustion of organic matter is _____. a) Methane b) Ozone c) Carbon Monoxide d) All of above 19. Rainfall is termed as acidic when pH value of rain is less than or equal to _____. a) 5.6 b) 7 c) 8.5 d) 7.2 20. Ozone depletion mainly causes ___________________. a) Skin cancer b) Lung cancer c) Coughing d) None of these 21. Green house effect causes _______________ of earth. a) Cooling b) Warming c) Expansion d) Contraction 22. _______________ solves problem of air pollution but creates problem of water pollution. a) ESP b) Bag house c) Cyclone d) Scrubbers 23. CO combines with Hemoglobin to form__________________. a) Carboxy- Hemoglobin b) Epoxy- Hemoglobin c) Mucus d) Pneumonia 24. Standard rate of DALR is _______________0 C/100m a) -1 b) +1
23. 23. Environmental Engineering-II Objective Question Bank TE (CIVIL) Div- A and B Page 23 c) - 0.001 d) + 0.001 25. ______________ is always constant. a) DALR b) ELR c) Inversion d) None of these 26. Pick out odd one – _____________ a) O3 b) PAN c) CO d) PBN 27. Stable atmosphere is _____________ for dispersion. a) Favorable b) Un-favourable c) Both a) and b) d) None of these 28. Most efficient particulate control equipment is _____________ a) Gravity settling chamber b) Cyclone separator c) Scrubber d) ESP 29. Mesosphere and Thermosphere together can be called as ____________ a) Chemosphere b) Lithosphere c) Ionosphere d) Radiosphere 30. ____________ pollution that originates from multiple sources over relatively large area. a) Point source b) None point source c) Influent source d) Effluent source 31. _____________ is secondary pollutant amongst the following a) Sulphur dioxide b) Sulphur trioxide c) hydrocarbons d) ozone 32. a) b) c) d) 33. a) b) c) d) 34. a) b) c) d) 35. a) b) c) d)

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Lecture notes of Environmental Engineering-II as per Solapur university syllabus of TE CIVIL. Prepared by Prof S S Jahagirdar, Associate Professor, N K Orchid college of Engg and Technology, Solapur

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