SME Unit 1-4 MCQs For SPPU Syllabus

SME Unit 1-4 MCQs
For SPPU Syllabus - Semester 1
UNIT 1 - Introduction of energy sources & its
conversion
UNIT 2 - Introduction to Thermal Engineering
UNIT 3 - Vehicles and their Specifications
UNIT 4 - Vehicle systems
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MCQ
Systems in Mechanical Engineering (102003) 2019 Pattern
Unit I: Introduction of energy sources & its conversion
1. The capacity to do work is called:
A. Heat B. Energy C. work D. none of the above
2. Heat is measured in:
A. Joule B. Calorie C. both A and B D. Joule/second
Ans: A It is measured in Joule.
3. With the increase in temperature, heat will be:
A. increase B. constant C. decrease D. double
4. How we measure the energy value of food?
A. Joule B. Joule/second C. Calorie D. none of the above
5. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a substance by 1°C is called:
A. work capacity B. heat capacity C. Energy capacity D. none of the above
6 . Heat capacity depends on
A. change in temperature
B. Mass of body
C. Nature of substance
D. All the above
7………………….. is neither created nor destroyed it can only change one form to another.
A. work
B. Heat
C. Energy
D. Mass of body
8. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a substance by …………..
A. 1°C
B. 1°F
C. 10°C
D. 10°F
9. Which of the following has the highest heat capacity?
A. Water
B. air
C. soil
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D. none of the above
10. Which of the following are the processes of transfer of heat?
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. All the above
11. The process of transfer of heat in solids is called:
A. Convection
B. Radiation
C. Conduction
(Ans: C In this process the molecules of the solid pass the heat from one to another, without
themselves moving from their positions.)
12. The temperature at which liquid changes into vapour is called:
A. Melting point
B. boiling point.
C. expansion point
13. In Conduction process the molecules of the solid pass the heat from one to another:
A. Without themselves moving from their positions.
B. themselves move from one place to another
C. without themselves moving from one place to another.
D. None of the above
14. The process of transfer of heat in liquids & gases is called:
A. Conduction B. Radiation C. Convection D. absorption
Ans: C It is the process of transfer of heat in liquids & gases
15. In convection, the molecules:
A. without themselves moving from their positions.
B. themselves move from one place to another
C. without themselves moving from one place to another.
16. Solids are not heated by convection because:
A. solid are not free to move from one place to another
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B. molecules only vibrate about a fixed position
C. both A and B
17. It is the process of heat transfer from a hot body to a colder body without heating the space
between the two is called:
A. Conduction B. Radiation C. Convection D. absorption
18. At night a current of air blows from the colder land to the warmer sea is called as:
A. Air Breezes B. Sea Breezes C. Land Breeze D. none of the above
19. The transfer of heat by radiation:
A. Does not require any medium.
B. require any medium.
C. does not require any space.
D. require any space.
20. The air over the land is heated, becomes lighter & rises while the cooler air from the sea
blows towards land to take its place is called as:
A. Land Breeze
B. Sea Breezes
C. air Breezes
21. At what factor heat absorbed on radiation by the body depends on?
A. Distance between bodies
B. source of heat
C. its color
D. All the above
22. The heat of the sun reaches the earth by:
A. Radiation
B. Convection
C. absorption
D. Conduction
23. The land breeze blows during:
A. day
B. night
C. winter
D. summer
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24. A wooden spoon is dipped in a cup of ice cream. Its other end…
A. becomes cold by the process of radiation.
B. becomes cold by the process of conduction.
C. “does not become cold.”
D. becomes cold by the process of convection.
25. The sea breeze blows during:
A. summer
B. winter
C. day
D. night
26. A cold steel spoon is dipped in a cup of hot milk. It transfers heat to its other end by the
process of…………….
A. Convection
B. Conduction
C. absorption
D. Radiation
27. Clothes of ………………… colors absorb heat better than clothes of ………….colors.
A. Light, dark
B. Dark, light
C. soft, dark,
287. Dark colored clothes are preferred during:
A. Winter
B. day
C. night
D. summer
29. No medium is required for transfer of heat by the process of :
A. absorption
B. Conduction
C. Radiation
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D. Convection
30. Light coloured clothes are preferred during
A. winter
B. summer
C. day
D. night
31. Why conduction is only possible in solids:
A. particles of solids are closely packed
B. heat is transferred from the hotter end to the colder end of an object.
C. heat is transferred from the colder end to the hotter end of an object.
D. both A and B
Ans: D In solids, generally, the heat is transferred by the process of conduction because particles
of solids are closely packed and heat is transferred from the hotter end to the colder end of an
object.
32. An iron ball at 40°C is dropped in a mug containing water at 40°C. The heat will….
A. Not flows from iron ball to water or from water to iron ball.
B. Flow from iron ball to water.
C. Flow from water to iron ball.
33. The materials which allow heat to pass through them easily are called:
A. insulators of heat
B. conductors of heat
C. semiconductors of heat
34. Stainless steel pans are usually provided with copper bottoms. The reason for this could be
that.
A. copper bottom makes the pan more durable.
B. such pans appear colourful.
C. Copper is a better conductor of heat than stainless steel.
35. Which of the following is not a requirement for site selection of hydroelectric power plant?
a) Availability of water
b) Large catchment area
c) Rocky land
d) Sedimentation
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36. The amount of electrical energy that can be generated by a hydroelectric power plant depends
upon ___________
a) Head of water
b) Quantity of water
c) Specific weight of water
d) Efficiency of Alternator
37. Potential energy of water is used to drive the turbine.
a) True
b) Faise
38. Hydroelectric power plant is __________
a) Non-renewable source of energy
b) Conventional source of energy
c) Non-conventional source of energy
d) Continuous source of energy
39. Hydroelectric power plant is generally located near load centre.
a) True
b) False
40. Hydroelectric power plant is mainly located in ____________
a) Flat areas
b) Deserts
c) Hilly areas
d) Deltas
41. Which statement about hydroelectric power plant is wrong?
a) Efficiency of hydroelectric power plant does not reduce with age
b) Its construction coast is very high and takes a long time for erection.
c) It is very neat and clean plant because no smoke or ash is produced.
d) Meeting rapidly changing load demands is not possible in hydroelectric power plant.
42. Which of the following is not an advantage of hydroelectric power plant?
a) No fuel requirement
b) Low running cost
c) Continuous power source
d) No standby losses
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43. Which of the following statement is true about hydroelectric power plant?
a) Hydroelectric power plants are multipurpose.
b) Due to non-uniform flow of water frequency control in such plants is very difficult.
c) Hydroelectric power plant has high running cost
d) Water is used as fuel in hydroelectric power plant
44. Which element of hydroelectric power plant prevents the penstock from water hammer
phenomenon?
a) Valves and Gates
b) Draft tubes
c) Spillway
d) Surge Tank
45. Dam having very wide base as compared to its height is called _________
a) buttress dam
b) arch dam
c) earth dam
d) solid gravity dam
46. Spillway discharges the overflow water to the downstream side when the reservoir is full.
a) True
b) False
47. Trash racks are built for ___________
a) discharging the water freely from the turbine exit to tailrace
b) preventing the turbine from ingress of floating and other materials
c) creating artificial head to store sufficient potential energy of water
d) controlling the opening of valves
48. Penstock in a hydroelectric power plant is _____________
a) a pipe connected to runner outlet
b) nozzle that release high pressure water on turbine blades
c) a conduit connecting forebay to scroll case of turbine
d) a pipe connecting surge tank to dam
49. The pressure at the inlet or exit of the draft tube should not be _________
a) less than one third of atmospheric pressure
b) greater than one third of atmospheric pressure
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c) less than one atmospheric pressure
d) greater than one atmospheric pressure
50. Draft tube increases the operating head on the turbine.
a) True
b) False
51. Which statement about surge tank is wrong?
a) Ideal location of surge tank is at the turbine inlet
b) A decrease in load demands cause a rise in water level in surge tank
c) Surge tanks are totally closed to avoid entry of unwanted objects to penstock
d) Surge tanks are installed to reduce harm effects of water hammer phenomenon
52. Trash racks are located _____________
a) near tailrace
b) at the entrance of turbine
c) inside penstock
d) intake
53. What is the function of booms?
a) It supports the dam
b) it supports the penstock
c) It divert the Icebergs from flowing into the penstock
d) To hold the turbine structure
54. The cheapest plant in operation and maintenance is.......
A. Steam power plant
B. Nuclear power plant
C. Hydro-electric power plant
55. Pelton turbines are mostly........
A. Horizontal
B. Vertical
C. Inclined
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56. The power output from a hydro-electric power plant depends on three parameters........
A. Head,type and dam of discharge
B. Head, discharge and efficiency of the system
C. Efficiency of the system, type of draft tube and type of turbine used
D. Type of dam, discharge and type of catchment area
57. The efficiency of a nuclear power plant in comparison to a conventional thermal power plant
is
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) may be less or mote depending on size
58. A nuclear unit becoming critical means
(a) it is generating power to rated capacity
(b) it is capable of generating much more than rated capacity
(c) there is danger of nuclear spread
(d) chain reaction that causes automatic splitting of the fuel nuclei has been established
59. Moderator in nuclear plants is used to
(a) Reduce temperature
(b) extract heat from nuclear reaction
(c) control the reaction
(d) cause collision with the fast moving neutrons to reduce their speed
60. The most commonly used moderator in nuclear plants is
(a) Heavy water
(b) concrete and bricks
(c) graphite and concrete
(d) deuterium
61. The nuclear energy is measured as
(a) MeV
(b) curie
(c) farads
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(d) MW
62. Reflecting mirrors used for exploiting solar energy are called........
A. Mantle
B. Ponds
C. Diffusers
D. Heliostats
63. The output of solar cell is of the order of........
A. 1 W
B. 5 W
C. 10 W
D. 20 W
64. Photovoltaic cell or solar cell converts........
A. Thermal energy into electricity
B. Electromagnetic radiation directly into electricity
C. Solar radiation into thermal energy
D. Solar radiation into kinetic energy
65. Temperature attained by a flat-plate collector is of the........
A. Order of about 900
C
B. Range of 1000
C to 1500
C
C. Above 1500
C
66. Solar cells,for power generation,entail the following major disadvantages........
A. Variable power
B. High cost
C. Lack of availability
D. Large area requirement
67. Largest geothermal plant in operation is in........
A. Maxico
B. Italy
C. Russia
D. California
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68. The process of producing energy by utilizing heat trapped inside the earth surface is called
_________
a) Hydro-thermal energy
b) Geo-Thermal energy
c) Solar energy
d) Wave energy
69. Earth‟s outer layer rock is called as __________
a) Mantle
b) Crust
c) Outer core
d) Asthenosphere
70. How much is the efficiency of geothermal plant?
a) 28%
b) 15%
c) 42%
d) 30%
71. The geothermal energy is the ________ from the earth.
a) Heat
b) Light
c) Photons
d) Protons
72. What type of energy is wind energy?
a) Renewable energy
b) Non-renewable energy
c) Conventional energy
d) Commercial energy
73. What are used to turn wind energy into electrical energy?
a) Turbine
b) Generators
c) Yaw motor
d) Blades
74. Wind energy can be used to
(A) Generate electricity
(B) Operate flour mills
(C) Draw underground water
(D) all of the above
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75. This is also called as a bio gas
(a) bio butanol
(b) biodiesel
(c) bio ethanol
(d) bio methane
76. Which country has world‟s largest tidal power plant?
a) Netherlands
b) South Korea
c) Laos
d) Bolivia
77. Reflector in nuclear plants is used to
(a) return the neutrons back into the core
(b) shield the radioactivity completely
(c) check polllution
(d) conserve energy
78. In nuclear fission each neutron that causes fission releases
(a) no new neutron
(b) at least one new neutron
(c) one new neutron
(d) more than one new neutrons
79. The process by which a heavy nucleus is splitted into two light nuclei is known as
(a) splitting
(b) fission
(c) fusion
(d) disintegration
80. Cost of nuclear fuel in nuclear power plant economics is considered as __________
a) running cost
b) maintenance cost
c) capital cost
d) development cost
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MCQ’s on
Unit II: Introduction to Thermal Engineering
1. Which of the following laws was formulated by Nernst?
a. First law of thermodynamics
b. Second law of thermodynamics
c. Third law of thermodynamics
d. None of the above
Answer: (c)
2. Which of the following variables controls the physical properties of a perfect gas
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) volume
(d) all of the above
(e) atomic mass.
Answer : d
3. The unit of temperature in S.I. units is
(a) Centigrade
(b) Celsius
(c) Fahrenheit
(d) Kelvin
(e) Rankine.
Answer : d
4. A closed system is one in which
(a) mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
(b) mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
(c) neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
(d) both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
(e) thermodynamic reactions take place.
Answer : a
5. Work done in a free expansion process is
(a) + ve
(b) -ve
(c) zero
(d) maximum
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(e) minimum.
Answer : c
6. An isolated system is one in which
(a) mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
(b) neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
(c) both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
(d) mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
(e) thermodynamic reactions do not occur.
Answer : b
7. Which of the following quantities is not the property of the system
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) specific volume
(d) heat
(e) density.
Answer : d
8. Which of the following is not the intensive property
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) density
(d) heat
(e) specific volume.
Answer : d
9. The basis for measuring thermodynamic property of temperature is given by
(a) zeroth law of thermodynamics
(b) first law of thermodynamics
(c) second law of thermodynamics
(d) third law of thermodynamics
(e) Avogadro‟s hypothesis.
Answer : a
10. First law of thermodynamics furnishes the relationship between
(a) heat and work
(b) heat, work and properties of the system
(c) various properties of the system
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(d) various thermodynamic processes
(e) heat and internal energy.
Answer : b
11. According to first law of thermodynamics
(a) work done by a system is equal to heat transferred by the system
(b) total internal energy of a system during a process remains constant
(c) internal energy, enthalpy and entropy during a process remain constant
(d) total energy of a system remains constant
(e) entropy of a system remains constant.
Answer : d
12. First law of thermodynamics
(a) enables to determine change in internal energy of the system
(b) does not help to predict whether the system will or not undergo a change
(c) does not enable to determine change in entropy
(d) provides relationship between heat, work and internal energy
(e) all of the above.
Answer : e
13. According to first law of thermodynamics
(a) mass and energy are mutually convertible
(b) Carnot engine is most efficient
(c) heat and work are mutually convertible
(d) mass and light are mutually convertible
(e) heat flows from hot substance to cold substance.
Answer : c
14. Which device maintains a body at a temperature lower than the temperature of the
surroundings?
a) PMM1
b) PMM2
c) refrigerator
d) heat pump
Answer: c
15. What does a refrigerant do?
a) absorbs the heat leakage into body from surroundings
b) evaporates in the evaporator
c) absorbs latent heat of vaporization form the body which is cooled
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d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
16. Coefficient of performance(COP) is defined as
a) heat leakage/work input
b) work input/heat leakage
c) latent heat of condensation/work input
d) work input/latent heat of condensation
Answer: a
17. Which device maintains a body at a temperature higher than the temperature of the
surroundings?
a) PMM1
b) PMM2
c) refrigerator
d) heat pump
Answer: d
18. In a heat pump, there is heat leakage from the body to the surroundings.
a) true
b) false
Answer: a
19. What is the relation between COP of heat pump and refrigerator?
a) COP of pump=COP of refrigerator – 1
b) COP of pump=COP of refrigerator + 1
c) COP of pump=COP of refrigerator – 2
d) COP of pump=COP of refrigerator + 2
Answer: b
20. Heat leakage from a heat pump to surroundings is always greater than work done on pump.
a) true
b) false
Answer: a
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21. Which of the following statements are true?
a) a heat pump provides a thermodynamic advantage over direct heating
b) COP for both refrigerator and pump cannot be infinity
c) work input for both refrigerator and pump is greater than zero
Answer: d
22. Kelvin-Planck‟s and Clausius‟ statements are
a) not connected to each other
b) virtually two parallel statements of second law
c) violation of one doesn‟t violate the other
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
23. If one of the Kelvin-Planck‟s or Clausius‟ statement is violated, then other is also violated.
a) true
b) false
Answer: a
24. A heat pump,
a) extracts energy at low temperature heat source
b) gives energy to high temperature heat source
c) both of the mentioned
Answer: c
25. Which of the following is true for a heat pump and a refrigerator?
a) a refrigerator removes heat to achieve cooling
b) a heat pump supplies heat at high temperature
c) both of the mentioned
Answer: c
26. The condenser and evaporator in vapour compression system are called cooler and
refrigerator respectively.
a) true
b) false
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Answer: a
27. The COP of gas-cycle refrigeration cycle is very high.
a) true
b) false
Answer: b
28. In which phase of a substance does conduction mode of heat transfer take place?
a. solid
b. liquid
c. gaseous
d. all of the above
ANSWER: d. all of the above
29. Mass transfer does not take place in
a. conduction heat transfer
b. convection heat transfer
c. radiation heat transfer
d. none of the above
ANSWER: c. radiation heat transfer
30. What is the condition for conduction mode of heat transfer between two bodies?
a. the two bodies must be in physical contact
b. there must be temperature gradient between the bodies
c. both a. and b.
ANSWER: c. both a. and b.
31. In which mode, does the heat energy transfer between two bodies when they are
separated by some distance and there is no any medium between them?
a. conduction mode of heat transfer
b. convection mode of heat transfer
c. radiation mode of heat transfer
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d. heat transfer cannot takes place with above condition
ANSWER: c. radiation mode of heat transfer
32. The radiant heat emitted by any body travels at the speed
a. less than the speed of light
b. more than the speed of light
c. equals to the speed of light
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: c. equals to the speed of light
33. The conduction heat transfer with combination of transfer of material also is called as
a. material conduction heat transfer
b. convection heat transfer
c. solid convection heat transfer
ANSWER: b. convection heat transfer
34. The literature of heat transfer generally recognizes distinct modes of heat transfer. How many
modes are there?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
35. Consider system A at uniform temperature t and system B at another uniform temperature T
(t > T). Let the two systems be brought into contact and be thermally insulated from their
surroundings but not from each other. Energy will flow from system A to system B because of
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a) Temperature difference
b) Energy difference
c) Mass difference
d) Volumetric difference
Answer: a
36. Unit of the rate of heat transfer is
a) Joule
b) Newton
c) Pascal
d) Watt
Answer: d
37. Convective heat transfer coefficient doesn‟t depend on
a) Surface area
b) Space
c) Time
d) Orientation of solid surface
Answer: a
38. The rate equation used to describe the mechanism of convection is called Newton‟s law of
cooling. So rate of heat flow by convection doesn‟t depend on
a) Convective heat transfer coefficient
b) Surface area through which heat flows
c) Time
d) Temperature potential difference
Answer: c
39. How many types of convection process are there?
a) One
b) Three
c) Four
d) Two
Answer: b
40. Thermal conductivity is maximum for which substance
a) Silver
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b) Ice
c) Aluminum
d) Diamond
Answer: d
41. Which of the following is an example of forced convection?
a) Chilling effect of cold wind on a warm body
b) Flow of water in condenser tubes
c) Cooling of billets in the atmosphere
d) Heat exchange on cold and warm pipes
Answer: b
42. According to Stefan Boltzmann law, the total radiation from a black body per second
per unit area is directly proportional to the
A) Absolute temperature
B) Square of the absolute temperature
C) Cube of the absolute temperature
D) Fourth power of the absolute temperature
Answer: Option D
43. In case of liquids and gases, the heat transfer takes place according to
A) Conduction
B) Convection
C) Radiation
D) None of these
Correct Answer
Answer: Option B
44. The radiation emitted by a black body is known as
A) Black radiation
B) Full radiation
C) Total radiation
D) All of these
Correct Answer
Answer: Option D
45. According to Newton's law of cooling, the heat transfer from a hot body to a cold body
is
A) Directly proportional to the surface area
B) Directly proportional to the difference of temperatures between the two bodies
C) Either (A) or (B)
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D) Both (A) and (B)
Correct Answer
Answer: Option D
46. Newtons law is given by
a) Q = h A (t s – t f)
b) Q = 2 h A (t s – t f)
c) Q = 3 h A (t s – t f)
d) Q = 4 h A (t s – t f)
Answer: a
47. The Stefan-Boltzmann constant has units of
a) kcal/m2
hr K4
b) kcal/m hr K4
c) kcal/hr K4
d) kcal/m2
K4
Answer: a
Explanation: According to Stefan-Boltzmann law, q = α A T4
.
48. According to Stefan-Boltzmann law of thermal radiation
a) q = α A T
b) q = α A T4
c) q = α A T3
d) q = α A T5
Answer: b
Explanation: α is Stefan-Boltzmann constant whose value is 5.67 * 10 -8
W/m2
K4
.
49. Calculate the radiant flux density from a black surface at 400 degree Celsius?
a) 1631.7 W/m2
b) 31.7 W/m2
c) 631.7 W/m2
d) 11631.7 W/m2
Answer: d
Explanation: E = σ T4
= 5.67 * 10 –8
(400 + 273)4
= 11631.7 W/m2
.
50. If the emitted radiant energy is to be doubled, to what temperature surface of black body
needs to be raised? Take radiant flux density as 11631.7 W/m 2.
a) 894.4 K
b) 200.4 K
c) 800.3 K
d) 600.4 K
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Answer: d
Explanation: 2(11631.7) = 5.67 * 10 –8
T 4
.
51. A furnace having inside temperature of 2250 has a glass circular viewing of 6 cm diameter. If
the transmissivity of glass is 0.08, make calculations for the heat loss from the glass window due
to radiation
a) 234.54 W
b) 652.32 W
c) 328.53 W
d) 762.32 W
Answer: c
Explanation: Q = σ A T4
(t) = 328.53 W.
52. The value of radiation coefficient or the Stefan-Boltzmann constant is
a) 5.67 * 10 -8
W/m2
K4
b) 5.67 * 10 -7
W/m2
K4
c) 5.67 * 10 -6
W/m2
K4
d) 5.67 * 10 -5
W/m2
K4
Answer: a
Explanation: q = α A T4
.
53. In a two stroke engine, the working cycle is completed in two revolutions of the crankshaft.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
54. A two stroke cycle engine gives _____________ the number of power strokes as compared
to the four stroke cycle engine, at the same engine speed.
a) half
b) same
c) double
d) four times
Answer: c
55. A two stroke cycle engine occupies larger floor area than a four stroke cycle engine.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
56. A two stroke engine gives _____________ mechanical efficiency than a four stroke cycle
engine.
a) higher
b) lower
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c) equal
Answer: a
57. The two stroke cycle engine have lighter flywheel.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
58. Thermal efficiency of a two stroke cycle engine is _____________ a four stroke cycle
engine.
a) equal to
b) less than
c) greater than
Answer: b
59. In a petrol engine, the mixture has the lowest pressure at the
a) beginning of suction stroke
b) end of suction stroke
c) end of compression stroke
Answer: b
60. The work required to overcome the friction of the exhaust and suction strokes is saved.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
61. As there is a working stroke in every revolution, a more uniform turning moment is obtained
on the crankshaft and therefore, a __________ flywheel is required.
a) heavier
b) slower
c) lighter
Answer: c
62. Two stroke engines are __________ than four stroke engines for the same power output and
speed.
a) heavier
b) slower
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c) lighter
Answer: c
63. For the same output, two stroke engines occupy ___________ space.
a) greater
b) lesser
c) same
Answer: b
64. The construction of a two stroke cycle engine is ____________ because it has ports instead
of valves.
a) complex
b) simple
c) unpredictable
Answer: b
65. In case of two stroke engines because of scavenging, burnt gases remain in the clearance
space as in case of four stroke engines.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
66. In a four stroke cycle diesel engine, compression
a) starts at 40º after bottom dead center and ends at 10º before top dead center
b) starts at 40º before top dead center and ends at 40º after bottom dead center
c) starts at top dead center and ends at 40º before bottom dead center
d) may start and end anywhere
Answer: a
67. In a four stroke cycle diesel engine, the exhaust valve
a) opens at 30º before bottom dead center and closes at 10º after top dead center
b) opens at bottom dead center and closes at top dead center
c) opens at 30º after bottom dead center and closes at 10º before top dead center
d) may open or close anywhere
Answer: a
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68. How can we classify steam generators on the basis of application?
a) utility steam generators
b) industrial steam generator
c) marine steam generator
Answer: d
69. Which of the following statement is correct?
a) A simple vertical boiler has one fire tube
b) A fire tube boiler occupies less space than a water tube boiler, for a given power
c) Steam at a high pressure and in large quantities can be produced with a simple vertical boiler
Answer: a
70. In a fire-tube boiler, the water is in ___________
a) tube
b) shell
c) drum
Answer: b
71. In a water-tube boiler, water flows through?
a) drum
b) shell
c) tube
Answer: a
72. The boiler in which the tubes are surrounded by hot gases is called ___________
a) fire tube boiler
b) water tube boiler
c) both fire and water tube boiler
Answer: b
73. Which of these is not a type of steam generator depending upon the kind of applications?
a) utility steam generators
b) marine steam generators
c) agricultural steam generators
d) industrial steam generators
Answer: c
74. What is the critical pressure of steam in a utility steam generator?
a) 220.2 bar
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b) 221.2 bar
c) 222.2 bar
d) 225.2 bar
Answer: b
75. A definite area where some thermodynamic process takes place is known as
a) Thermodynamic System
b) Thermodynamic circle
c Thermodynamic process
d) Thermodynamic laws
Answer: a
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Unit III Vehicles and their Specifications.
1. Two door and four door type automobiles are classified as
a) Sedan
b) Convertible
c) Special purpose vehicles
d) Pick ups
Ans. A
2. Which of these falls under LMV(Light Motor Vehicle) category based on capacity?
a) Motorbikes
b) Cars
c) Buses
d) Trains
Ans. B
3. A delivery van falls under the category of which type of vehicles.
a) Heavy passenger vehicles
b) Light passenger vehicles
c) Heavy goods vehicles
d) Light goods vehicles
Ans. D
4. Abbreviation HEVs stands for what
a) Highly Efficient Vehicles
b) Hybrid Electric Vehicles
c) Highly Economic Vehicles
d) Highly Engineered Vehicles
Ans. B
5. Abbreviation SUVs stands for what
a) Supply Unit Vehicles
b) Sub-urban Utility Vehicles
c) Short Urban Vehicles
d) Super Utility Vehicles
Ans. B
6. BMW is a leading German engine and automobile manufacturing company. Here BMW is an
abbreviation for
a) British Motor Works
b) Bayerische Motoren Werke
c) Bayerische Machine Werke
d) Bright Motor Works
Ans. B
7. The transmission system transmits _________ from engine to wheels.
a) Speed
b) Power
c) Current
d) Pressure
Ans. B
8. Which of the following is not a part of the transmission system
a) Clutch
b) Axles
c) Wheels
d) Gear box
Ans. C
9. The loads supported by an automobile frame are
a) Weight of the body, passengers and cargo loads
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b) Torque from engine and transmission
c) Sudden impacts from collisions
d) All of the mentioned
Ans. D
10. An automobile chassis does not include which one of the following parts
a) Shock absorbers
b) Steering system
c) Differential
d) Brakes
Ans, c
11. The electrical system of an automobile contains which of the following
a) Battery
b) Alternators
c) Lighting systems
Ans. D
12. Which of these were or are used in automobiles to provide suspension.
a) Leaf springs
b) Coil springs
c) Torsion bars
Ans. D
13. Which of these is not necessary for the description of an automobile
a) Type
b) Capacity
c) Colour
d) Model
Ans. C
14. Which of these is necessary for the description of an automobile
a) Make
b) Model
c) Capacity
Ans. D
15. „Volkswagen Polo‟ is a
a) Ultra-compact car
b) Sub-compact car
c) Compact car
d) Executive car
Ans. B
16. „Maruti 800‟ is a
a) Sub-compact car
b) Compact car
c) City car
d) Sports car
Ans. C
17. What is actual power delivered by the engine known as?
a) Shaft power
b) Horse power
c) Brake power
d) None of the mentioned
Ans. A
18. If „T‟ is torque(in Nm) and „N‟ is speed(in rpm) then the required expression for Brake power
„B.P‟ in kWs is
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a) 2πNT/6000
b) 2πNT/60000
c) πNT/6000
d) πNT/60000
Ans. B
19. One Horse Power(H.P) is approximately equal to _____ Watts.
a) 810
b) 545
c) 634
d) 746
Ans. D
20. In a Otto cycle engine, combustion occurs at
a) Constant pressure
b) Constant temperature
c) Constant volume
d) Constant heat
Ans. C
21. In a Diesel cycle engine, combustion occurs at
a) Constant pressure
b) Constant temperature
c) Constant volume
d) Constant heat
Ans. A
22. In a four stroke ic engine the number of strokes covered for one complete crankshaft
revolution is
a) 4
b) 2
c) 1
d) 0.5
Ans. B
23. Trucks and Buses use which type of fuel?
a) Petrol
b) LPG
c) CNG
d) Diesel
Ans, d
24. A 4*2 drive vehicle implies that
a) It has 4*2=8 wheels
b) It has 2 auxiliary wheels and 4 drive wheels
c) It has 4 wheels out of which 2 are drive wheels
Ans. C
25. In a four stroke engine each cylinder has
a) One valve
b) Two valves
c) Three valves
d) Four valves
Answer: b
26. In a diesel engine the fuel injection pressure is in the range
a) 100 to 170 atm
b) 60 to 70 atm
c) 30 to 40 atm
d) 20 to 25 atm
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Answer: a
27. The valve is opened as the cam lobe on the cam raises the
a) Bearing
b) Piston
c) Valve lifter
d) Valve seat
Answer: c
28. Exhaust valve temperature is about
a) 35 degree celsius
b) 100 degree celsius
c) 150 degree celsius
d) 500 degree celsius
Answer: d
29. The size of the engine intake valve is
a) Same as that of exhaust valve
b) Smaller than that of exhaust valve
c) Larger than that of exhaust valve
d) Does not depend upon the size of exhaust valve
Answer: b
30. The device used to measure the clearance between the valve and tappet of an IC Engine is
a) Feeler gauge
b) Snap gauge
c) Slip gauge
d) Micrometer
Answer: a
31. The purpose of valve clearance is to
a) Allow the valve to expand
b) Allow the sliding of valve in the guide
c) Ensure that the valve closes fully
d) Ensure that the crankshaft is free to rotate
Answer: c
32. The opening and closing of a valve is respectively done by
a) A cam and a spring
b) A spring and a cam
c) Gas pressure and cam
d) Cylinder vacuum and spring
Answer: a
33. On modern four stroke engines the exhaust valve opens just
a) Before TDC
b) After TDC
c) Before BDC
d) After BDC
Answer: c
34. On modern four stroke engines the inlet valve opens just
a) Before TDC
b) After TDC
c) Before BDC
d) After BDC
Answer: a
35. A relief valve is fitted to the main oil gallery of an engine. The purpose of this valve is to
a) Limit the maximum oil pressure
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b) Open when the oil is hot
c) Maintain the supply if the gallery becomes blocked
d) Stop the oil flow to the bearings
Answer: A relief valve limits the maximum oil pressure.
36. The temperature indicating instrument in vehicles indicates the temperature of
(A)Engine piston
(B) Engine cylinder
(C) Lubricating oil
(D)Jacket cooling water
Answer: Option D
37. Two general types of tyres are
(A)Tube type and tubeless
(B) Solid and tubeless
(C) Air and pneumatic
(D)Split rim and drop centre
Answer: Option A
38. How many cells are used in a 12 volt car battery?
(A)2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D)8
Answer: Option C
39. The motion of the cam is transferred to the valves through
(A)Pistons
(B) Rocker arms
(C) Camshaft pulley
(D)Valve stems
Answer: Option B
40. The power actually developed inside the engine cylinder is called as
(A)Indicated power
(B) Brake power
(C) Frictional power
(D)None of these
Answer: Option A
41. If the air-fuel mixture in a spark ignition engine is too rich, then air-fuel ratio is about
(A)17:1
(B) 15:1
(C) 13:1
(D)10:1
Answer: Option D
42. Petrol that detonates easily is called
(A)High octane petrol
(B) Low octane petrol
(C) Unleaded petrol
(D)Blended fuel
Answer: Option B
43. The advantage of a tubeless tyre over tube type tyre is
(A)Slow air leakage
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(B) Better fuel efficiency
(C) Less chances of running flat
(D)All of these
Answer: Option D
44. The battery is an electrochemical device, which means battery
(A)Makes chemicals by mechanical means
(B) Uses chemical action to provide electricity
(C) Has curved plates instead of flat plates
(D)Does not use an electrolyte
Answer: Option B
45. Two advantages of using helical gears rather than spur gears in a transmission system are
(A)Strength and cost
(B) Strength and less end thrust
(C) Noise level and strength
(D)Noise level and economy
Answer: Option C
46. The correct flow of power through the drive train is
(A)Engine drive shafts, clutch, main shaft, counter shaft, final driven gear,
wheels
(B) Engine clutch, main shaft, counter shaft, final driven gear, drive shafts,
wheels
(C) Engine clutch, counter shaft, main shaft, final driven gear, drive shafts,
wheels
(D)Engine main shaft, counter shaft, clutch, final driven gear, drive shafts,
wheels
Answer: Option B
47. The most commonly used power plant in automobiles is
(A)Gas turbine
(B) I.C. engine
(C) Battery
(D)None of these
Answer: Option B
48. In commercial vehicle layouts engine is located forward, rear or under floor mainly to
a. Better utilization of space
b. Increase fuel economy
c. Better weight distribution
d. Reduce the weight of chassis
Ans: c
49. The type of air cycle used in diesel engine is called
a. Otto cycle
b. Carnot cycle
c. Diesel cycle
d. Rankine cycle
Ans: c
50. During suction stroke the pressure inside the cylinder is
a. Equal to atmospheric pressure
b. Above atmospheric pressure
c. Above or below atmospheric pressure
d. Below atmospheric pressure
Ans: d
51. During compression stroke the air is compressed according to
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a. Isothermal process
b. Hyperbolic process
c. Adiabatic process
d. Constant pressure process
Ans: c
52. The heat is added in the cycle at
a. Constant pressure
b. Constant volume
c. Approximately constant pressure and constant volume
Ans: c
53. The crankcase scavenging the the crankcase or underside of the piston acts as
a. An air compressor
b. A blower
c. A ventilator
d. A breather
Ans: a
54. The two-stroke engine has valve ports in the
a. Pistons
b. Cylinder walls
c. Piston rings
Ans: b
55. The temperature of the piston will be more at
a. The piston walls
b. The crown of the piston
c. The skirt of the piston
d. The piston pin
Ans: b
56. Connecting rods are generally of the following from
a. Forged round section steel
b. Cast steel triangular section
c. Forged square section steel
d. Forged I section steel
Ans: d
57. For petrol engines the nominal compression ratio will vary between
a. 1 to 2:1
b. 18 to 21:1
c. 1 to 5:1
d. 7.5 to 8.5:1
Ans: d
58. For diesel engines the nominal compression ratio is from
a. 17 to 21:1
b. 7.5 to 8.5:1
c. 30 to 40:1
d. 1 to 5:1
Ans: a
59. Engine torque is highest at
a. Low speed
b. Intermediate speed
c. High speed
Ans: b
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60. The characteristic of an object which makes it resist any tendency to change its direction
of motion iscalled
a. Inertia
b. Power
c. Internal energy
Ans: a
61. The maximum pressure of air at the end of compression in diesel engines is about
a. 10 Kg/cm2
b. 100 Kg/cm2
c. 300 Kg/cm2
d. 30 Kg/cm2
Ans: d
62. Immediately after ignition, combustion chamber temperatures may reach a value of
a. 15000C
b. 55000C
c. 25000C
d. 75000C
Ans: a
63. The compression ratio in a diesel engine is as high as
a. 25:1
b. 20:1
c. 10:1
d. 5:1
Ans: b
64. The temperature of the compressed air should be ………….. of the fuel
a. Below the flash point
b. Above the flash point
c. Above the fire point
d. Between the fire and flash point
Ans: c
65. The compression pressure in diesel engine is around
a. 30 Kg/cm2
b. 10 Kg/cm2
c. 20 Kg/cm2
d. 40 Kg/cm2
Ans: a
66. The combustion process in a diesel engine is
a. Constant pressure process
b. Isothermal process
c. Constant volume process
d. Adiabatic process
Ans: a
67. Most of the mopeds in India have capacity of
a. 10 cc
b. 250 cc
c. 50 cc
d. 175 cc
e. 150 cc
Ans: c
68. Which motor cycle has maximum power rating
a. Rajdoot
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b. Jawa
c. Yamaha
d. Bullet
Ans: c
69. Piston displacement is calculated from the
a. Cylinder diameter and length
b. Piston length and diameter
c. Bore and stroke
Ans: c
70. The power used in overcoming friction in the engine is called
a. FHP
b. BHP
c. IHP
Ans: a
71. During combustion the pressure in the cylinder may increase to as much as
a. 50 Kg/cm2
b. 400 Kg/cm2
c. 10 Kg/cm2
Ans: a
72. The size of intake valve is
a. Smaller than that of the exhaust valve
b. Equal to that of the exhaust valve
c. Larger than that of the exhaust valve
d. Not depending upon the size of exhaust valve
Ans: c
73. Two stoke engine is preferred for small vehicles because
a. Fuel consumption is low
b. Shock and vibrations are less
c. Its size is small
d. It is easy to control
Ans: c
74. The part of the vehicle which holds the passengers and the cargo to be transported, is
known as
A. Chassis B. Hull
C. Aft D. Senan
E. Cabin
Answer: Option B
75. Which one of the following is not a part of the chassis?
A. WheelsB. Front axle
C. Steering system D. Passenger seats
E. Rear axles
Answer: Option D
76. Diesel engines are generally preferred for road transport these days because of low
A. Initial cost B. Manufacturing cost
C. Prime cost D. Operating cost
E. Maintenance cost
Answer: Option D
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77. The device for smoothening out the power inpulses from the engine is called
A. Clutch B. Differential
C. Flywheel D. Torque convertor
E. Gear box
Answer: Option C
78. Which vechicle is generally provided with four wheel drive
A. Ambassador car B. Standard wagon
C. Metador D. Jeep
E. Padmini car
Answer: Option D
79. In a four wheel drive the number of gear boxes is
A. 1 B. 2
C. 4 D. One gear box with more gears
E. Depends on the design of vehicle
Answer: Option B
80. Which one of the following is mounted between the engine and gear box?
A. Propellor shaftB. Differential gear
C. Reduction gear D. Clutch
E. None of the above
Answer: Option D
81. In case of four cylinder in line engine, the number of firing stroke (s) in one revolution of
crank is
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
E. Depends on the design of engine.
Answer: Option B
82. At the first sight a petrol engine is identified by
A. Cylinder size B. Power output
C. Operating speed D. Spark plug
E. Size of air cleaner
Answer: Option D
83. Which part is not common between the petrol and diesel engines
A. Air cleaner B. Exhaust silencer
C. BatteryD. Dynamo
E. Fuel injector
Answer: Option E
84. The heating value of petrol is
A. 7650 kcal/kg B. 8000-8500 kcal/kg
C. 10,000-10400 kcal/kg D. 12750-13850 kcal/kg
E. 15000-16000 kcal/kg
Answer: Option C
85. Which one of the following does not form a part of the fuel supply system for a Diesel
engine?
A. Supply pump B. Filter
C. Air cleaner D. Spray nozzles
E. Injector
Answer: Option C
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Unit IV: Vehicle Systems
1. The transmission system transmits ___ from engine to wheels.
a) Speed
b) Power
c) Current
d) Pressure
2. Which of the following is not a part of the transmission system
a) Clutch
b) Axles
c) Wheels
d) Gear box
3. The loads supported by an automobile frame are
a) Weight of the body, passengers and cargo loads
b) Torque from engine and transmission
c) Sudden impacts from collisions
4. An automobile chassis does not include which one of the following parts
a) Shock absorbers
b) Steering system
c) Differential
d) Brakes
5. The electrical system of an automobile contains which of the following
a) Battery
b) Alternators
c) Lighting systems
6. Which of these were or are used in automobiles to provide suspension.
a) Leaf springs
b) Coil springs
c) Torsion bars
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7. „Head restraints‟ are an
a) Automotive style feature
b) Automotive safety feature
c) Automotive performance feature
8. What is actual power delivered by the engine known as?
a) Shaft power
b) Horse power
c) Brake power
9. If „T‟ is torque(in Nm) and „N‟ is speed(in rpm) then the required expression for
Brake power „B.P‟ in kWs is
a) 2πNT/6000
b) 2πNT/60000
c) πNT/6000
d) πNT/60000
10. One Horse Power(H.P) is approximately equal to _____ Watts.
a) 810
b) 545
c) 634
d) 746
11. In a four stroke cycle engine camshaft revolves at ______ the crank speed.
a) Two times
b) Half
c) Four times
d) Three times
12. In which of the following fuel injector is used?
a) Compression-ignition engines
b) Spark-ignition engines
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c) Steam engines
d) Sterling engines
13. At which stroke the fuel is injected in the CI engine?
a) Suction stroke
b) Compression stroke
c) Expansion stroke
d) Exhaust stroke
14. Where is the clutch located?
a) Between transmission and engine
b) Between transmission and rear axle
c) Between transmission and propeller shaft
d) Between transmission and differential
15.Which of the following parts of the cover assembly that hold the pressure plate
against the clutch plate?
a) Springs
b) Thrust bearings
c) Struts
d) Lever
16. Which of the following is the need of the gearbox?
a) To vary the speed of the vehicle
b) To vary the torque of the vehicle
c) To vary the power of the vehicle
d) To vary the acceleration of the vehicle
17. In which of the gearbox all gears are always in contact?
a) Constant-mesh gearbox
b) Sliding mesh gearbox
c) Synchromesh gearbox
d) Epicyclical gearbox
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18. Which types of gears are used in constant mesh gearbox?
a) Spur gear
b) Helical gear
c) Bevel gear
d) Worm gear
19. Why are the helical gears used commonly in transmission over spur gears?
a) Low cost and high strength
b) Low noise level and high strength
c) Low noise level and economy
d) Low noise level and low cost
20. Increase of torque in a vehicle is obtained by decreasing power.
a) True
b) False
21. Which types of joints are used when the shafts are inclined?
a) Universal joint
b) Hinge joint
c) Ball and socket joint
d) Pivot joint
22. Where is the differential located?
a) Between transmission and rear axle
b) Between engine and transmission
c) Between two propeller shaft
d) Between steering wheel and steering column
23. What is the need of the universal joint?
a) To change inclination
b) To bend sideways
c) To transfer torque at an angle
d) To change length
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24. A two-piece propeller shaft requires one universal joint.
a) True
b) False
25. On what principle does the braking system in the car work?
a) Frictional force
b) Gravitational force
c) Magnetic force
d) Electric force
26. Generally which brakes are on the front wheels?
a) Drum brake
b) Disk brake
c) Shoe brake
d) Double shoe brake
27. In Front engine rear wheel drive Engine is located at
a) Front
b) Rear
c) Left
d) Right
28. In Rear engine rear wheel drive Engine is located at
a) Front
b) Rear
c) Left
d) Right
29. In Front engine front wheel drive Engine is located at
a) Front
b) Rear
c) Left
d) Right
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30. In Rear engine rear wheel drive Engine is located at
a) Front
b) Rear
c) Left
d) Right
31. Functions of Steering System:
a) To change the direction of vehicle
b) To provide the directional stability to vehicle when moving along straight path
c) To facilitate straight motion recovery after completing the turn
d) All above options
32. Which is not a Component of Steering System
a) Axle Beam
b) Stub Axle
c) King Pin
d) Brake
33) Which is not a function of the braking system
a) To provide a mean to slow the vehicle without affecting the engine speed.
b) To provide a mean to stop the vehicle while the engine is still running.
c) To change gears
d) To provide emergency stop of the vehicle within lowest time and distance.
34) Type of Brake
a) Single Plate Clutch
b) Multi Plate Clutch
c) Disc Brakes
d) Cone Clutch
35. Which is not a part of Internally Expanding Brake?
a) Brake shoe
b) Retractor spring
c) Brake drum
d) Disc
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36. Which is not a advantage of Internally Expanding Brake?
a) The wear and tear on brake shoes is not uniform.
b) It consists of large friction shoes providing better braking.
c) The overall system design and construction simple.
d) The drum brakes are most economical at cost.
37. Which is not a part of Disc Brake?
a) Rotating Disc
b) Expander
c) Calliper
d) Fluid lines
38. Front Axle is made by _____ manufacturing process
a) Casting
b) Powder Metallurgy
c) 3D printing
d) Forging
39. Which is not a Function of Suspension System ?
a) To isolate the vehicle body from road shocks
b) To stop vehicle
c) To safeguard passengers and cargo from the road shocks
d) To maintain the contact between the tyres and road.
40. Which is not a part of Leaf Spring (Semi-Elliptic Leaf Spring)?
a) Rebound clips
b) Shackle
c) U-Bolts
d) Helical compression spring
41. Which is not a part of Telescopic Suspension System?
a) Helical compression spring
b) Damper
c) Rebound clips
d) Telescopic system
42. If heat lost to cylinder wall is not dissipated or removed is leads not to?
a) damage of cylinder due to overheating
b) seizing of piston due to overheating
c) burning of lubricating oil
d) increase efficiency
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43. Which is not a component of Fuel supply and fuel injection system in Diesel
engine?
a) Fuel Filter
b) Fuel Rail:
c) Fuel Injector
d) Spark Plug
44. Which is not a type of Clutch?
a) Plate or Disc
b) Cone
c) Internal Expanding
d) Centrifugal
45. Which is not the function of Gear Box?
a) Gear box reduces the speed and increases the torque.
b) Increase Power
c) Gear box provides wide range of speeds and torque to the vehicle
d) With reverse gear, gear box provides the means to move the vehicle in reverse
direction
46. Which is not a Vehicle Passive System?
a) Antilock Braking System (ABS)
b) Seat belts
c) Air bags
d) Laminated Glass
47. Which is not a Vehicle Active System?
a) Night Vision System
b) Seat Belts
c) Lane Departure Warning
d) Antilock Braking System (ABS)
48. The automobile engine is running at 6000 rpm. The speed of propeller shaft is
1500 rpm in first gear determine the speed in first gear?
a) 6
b) 4
c) 5
d) 7
49. The automobile engine is developing 70 KW power at 4000 rpm. If the gear
ratio in Ist
gear is 3.9: 1, determine input torque of gear box?
a) 100 Nm
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b) 80 Nm
c) 167.11 Nm
d) 50 Nm
50. The automobile engine is developing 70 KW power at 4000 rpm. If the gear
ratio in Ist
gear is 3.9: 1, determine output speed of gear box?
a) 500 rpm
b) 1025.64 rpm
c) 5000 rpm
d) 50 rpm
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UNIT V Introduction to Manufacturing
1. The metal is subjected to mechanical working for
(a) Refining grain size
(b) Reducing original block into desired shape
(c) Controlling the direction of flow lines
(d) All of these
2. The temperature at which the new grains are formed in the metal is called
(a) Lower critical temperature
(b) Upper critical temperature
(c) Eutectic temperature
(d)Recrystallisation temperature
3. The dowels are
(a) Wooden nails
(b) Box nails
(c) Wire nails
(d)None of these
4. Which of the following material can be used for making patterns?
(a) Aluminum
(b) Wax
(c) MS
(d) All of these
5. Aluminum is the best material for making patterns because it is
(a) A light in weight
(b) Easy to work
(c) Corrosion resistant
(d) All of these
6. The purpose of a riser is to
(a) Deliver molten metal into the mould cavity
(b) Act as a reservoir for the molten metal
(c) Feed the molten metal to the casting in order to compensate for the shrinkage
(d) Deliver the molten metal from pouring basin to gate
7. Which “term” is not associated with casting process?
(a) Gate
(b) Runner
(c) Riser
(d) Swage
8. A “die” is used in
(a)casting process
(b)extrusion process
(c)forging process
(d) all of these.
9. Investment casting uses pattern made of
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(a)wax (b) clay (c)metal (d) wood
10. In sand mould the upper half of the box is named as
(a) Cope
(b) drag
(c)cheek
(d) none of above
11. To pour the molten metal equipment used is
(a)Lifter
(b) ladle
(c)slick
(d) flask
12. In sand mould the bottom half of the box is named as
(a) Cope
(b) drag
(c)cheek
(d) none of above
13. A welding procedure is useful to:
(a) Give information to the welder
(b) Give information to the inspector
(c) Give “Confidence” to a product
(d)All of the above
14. The main causes of porosity in welded joints are:
(a) Poor access
(b) Loss of gas shield
(c)“Dirty” materials
(d) All of the above
15. Porosity is caused by:
(a) Entrapped slag in the solidifying weld
(b) Entrapped gas in the solidifying weld
(c) Entrapped metallic inclusions in the solidifying weld
(d) None of the above
16. Why welding is shielded?
(a) To eliminate hydrogen
(b) To retard the cooling rate of the weld
(c) To eliminate the atmosphere
(d)To ensure maximum heat input
17. “Blanking” is an expression used in
(a) sheet metal work
(b) casting process
(c)drawing
(d) rolling.
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18. In drawing operation the metal flows due to
(a)ductility
(b) work hardening
(c)plasticity
(d) shearing
19. Metal forming is the process in which
(a) Removal of metal takes place
(b) Shaping of metal by forces applied through various dies and tools
(c) Some additional materials are joined to the raw material
(d) Material addition, through melting and pouring
20. Casting is the process in which
(c) Some additional materials are joined to the raw material
21. Welding is the process in which
(c) Two piece of metal sheets are joint by adding the filler material
22. In hot working metal is to be heated
(a) Below recystallization temperature (b) Above recystallization temperature
(c) At recystallization temperature (d) none of above
23. In cold working metal is to be heated
(a) Below recystallization temperature (b) Above recystallization temperature
(c) At recystallization temperature (d) none of above
24. Rollers are used to shape the metal in ---- process
(a) forging (b) casting
(c) rolling (d) none of above
25. In a welding a flux is used
(a)to permit perfect cohesion of metal
(b) To remove the oxides of the metal formed at higher temperature
(c)both (a) and (b) above
(d)none of above
26. In arc welding current used is
(a) AC current of high frequency (b) AC current of low frequency
(c) DC current (d) all of above
27. Brazing process is carried out in the temperature range of ---
(a)150-250 deg C (b) 250-450 deg C
(c) 500-700 deg C (d) 700-900 deg C
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28. The flux in brazing process is used in the form of ----
(a) Solid (b) liquid
(c) Gas (d) all of above
29. Filler material in welding should have ----
(a) same composition as the parent metal to be welded
(b) same melting temperature as the parent metal to be welded
(c) same composition and same melting point as the parent metal to be welded
(d) same composition as of electrode
30. Binding wire used to support the joint for soldering is made of ----
(a) soft iron (b)aluminium
(c)mild steel (d) copper
31. Advantage of cold working is
(a)better dimensional accuracy (b) better surface finish
(c)higher strength (d) all of these.
32. Typical hot working temperature range for steel is
(a) 650–1050°C (b) 650–723°C
(c)500–910°C (d) none of these.
33. The forging operation of “upsetting” is
(a) reverse of drawing down process (b) it is a bending operation
(c)it is a drifting operation d) none of these.
34. “Blanking” is an expression used in
(a)sheet metal work (b) casting process
(c) drawing (d) rolling.
35. The strength of a brazed joint
(a) decreases with increase in gap between the two joining surfaces
(b) increases with increase in gap between the two joining surfaces
(c) decreases up to certain gap between the two joining surfaces beyond which it
increases
(d) increases up to certain gap between the two joining surfaces beyond which it
decreases
36. When a metal returns to its original shape after an applied load has been removed, the
metal is said to have:
(a) Plasticity (b) Ductility
(c) Elasticity (d) Malleability
37. Which one of the following casting processes is the most widely used:
(a)centrifugal casting (b) die casting
(c)investment casting (d) sand casting
38. In sand casting, the volumetric size of the pattern than the casted part is
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(a)bigger than, (b) the same size
(c) smaller than the cast part d) all of above
39. The application of runner is;
(a) horizontal distribution channel that accepts molten metal from the sprue and delivers
it to the gates, trap dross
(b) regions with larger circles (fillet radii), slower cooling rates, can develop shrinkage
cavities and porosity
(c) used to trap large contaminants and reduce metal velocity and make flow more
laminar
(d) goal is to achieve required metal flow rates (s.t. turbulence is avoided) while
preventing aspiration or dross formation
40. The property of a material by which it can be drawn into wires is known as
(a) ductility (b)elasticity
(c) softness (d) tempering
41. Malleability of a metal is the
(a) ability to withstand compressive stresses
(b) ability to withstand deformation under shear
(c) property by which a material can be cold-worked
(d) ability to undergo permanent deformation
42. The preheating of parts to be welded and slow cooling of the welded structure will
reduce
(a) cracking and incomplete fusion
(b) cracking and residual stress.
(c) residual stress and incompl
43. In drop forging the component is kept on____.
a) upper die
b) lower die
c) anvil block
d) all of the above
44. In mechanical working the flow of metal is ______.
a) Electric flow
b) Plastic flow
c) continuous flow
d) all of the above
45. For assembly of electronic components to the printed circuit boards ____method is
commonly used.
a) brazing
b) soldering
c) welding
d) All of above
46. The change in structure from hot working improves mechanical properties like ____.
a) ductility
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b) toughness
c) resistance to shock and vibration
d) all of the above
47. Welding of _____ components is difficult.
a) cast
b) forged
c) sheet metal
d) None of above
48. If material is more ____, it can be more cold worked.
a) ductile
b) brittle
c) tough
d) stiff
49. Which of the following represents Slitting operations?
ANS: B
50. Which of the following represents Notching operations?
ANS: D
51. The Blanking operation is given by
ANS: A
52. Identify the operation performed on sheet metal working
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A. Piercing B. Punching C. Perforating D. Blanking
53. Identify the operation performed on sheet metal working
A)Shearing B) Notching C) Bending D)Angle making
54. Which of the following is not angle bending operation?
B. ANS: D
55. The Piercing operation is given by
ANS: D
56. Which of the following represents Lancing operations?
ANS: B
57. Which one of the following represents shaving operation?
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ANS: D
58. The following component produced by operation
Slitting B. Punching C. Lancing D. Notching
59. Identify the manufacturing process.
a) Casting
b) Welding
c) Forging
d) Fabrication
a) Close die forging
b) Open die forging
c) Drop Forging
d) Fabrication
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a) Coining
b) Drawing
c) Embossing
d) Blanking
a) Close die forging b)Open die forging c)Drop Forging d) Fabrication
a) lancing
b) Piercing
c) blanking
d) punching
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a)punching b) piercing c) coining d) blanking
65. Identify the part indicated by arrow.
a)sprue b) riser c) gate d) core
a) gate
b) riser
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c) runner
d) core
a) gate
b) riser
c) runner
d) core
a) gate
b) riser
c) runner
d) core
69. The various brazing processes are____.
a) torch brazing
b) silver brazing
c) furnace brazing
d) all
70. In brazing process
a) strength of joint is less
b) joint can be damaged by under high temperature
c) joint colour is different than that of base metal
d) all of the above
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71. which is metal cutting operation?
a) punching
b) blanking
c) piercing
d) all of above
72. which is metal forming operation?
a) punching
b) blanking
c) piercing
d) drawing
73. Welding produces_____.
a) harmful radiations
b) fumes
c) spatter
d) all of above
74. Welding results in _____.
a) residual stresses
b) deformation of workpieces
c) metallurgical changes in workpieces
d) all of above
75. ____ process uses closed impression die to obtain the required shape of component.
a) hand forging
b) casting
c) drop forging
d) soldering
76. ______ temperature differentiates hot working and cold working.
a) heating
b) cooling
c) recrystallisation
d) none of above
77. In ____ process the ram I raised to a definite height and then allowed to fall freely under
its own weight.
a) hand forging
b) casting
c) drop forging
d) soldering
78. Casting process is also called as ______.
a) forging
b) founding
c) joing
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d) soldering
79. In ____operations the sheet metal is stressed beyond its ultimate strength.
a) forming
b) cutting
c) bending
d) drawing
80. The following machine is called as mother of all machine tools
(a) Shaping machine
(b) Milling machine
(c) Lathe machine
(d) Universal machine
Ans.: (c)
81. In CNC machines various functions are controlled with the help of ------------
i)MCU
ii) CNE Machine tools,
iii) Part programs
82. Micro controller is the ---------- of the of the CNC system.
i)MCU,
ii) Feedback device,
iii) Mamory storage device
83. Phenominon which connects a varity of things, everything‟s that has ability to
communicate is known as -------------
i)IOT,
ii) Rapid prototyping,
iii) Micromachining
84. Interconnectivity, Heterogegety, things related services, Dynamic changes are the
characteristics of --------------
i)IOT,
iii) Reconfigurable manufacturing
85. Interconnectivity, Heterogeneity, things related services, Dynamic changes are the -------
-------of IOT
i)Concept,
ii) components
iii) characteristics
86. Out of following which is not advantage of CNC Machine-----
i) Program storage,
ii) Reduced jigs and fixtures,
iii) Skill operators
87. 3D printing also known as -----------
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i)Additive manufacturing,
ii)Micro machining,
iii)Rapid prototyping
88. -------- is a process of creating three dimensional physical objects from a computer
model or digital file
i)Micro machining,
iii)3D Printing
89. Three dimentional printing is --------rapid prototyping system
i)Powder based
ii)Skill based
iii)Computer based
90. In 3D printing process to create 3D prototype -------- of deposited powder are solidified
i)Layers
ii)Stages
iii)Slices
91. What is the file format we export to print in 3D printing
i)Obj ,
ii)stl
iii)stj
92. --------spreads a new layer of material on top of previously printed layer
i)Feed platform
ii)Roller mechanism
iii)Feed bed
93. Sanding operation is ----------operation
i) post processing
ii) Pre processing
iii) Finishing
94. Technique of producing the features with dimensions ranging from few microns to few
hundred microns is known as --------------
i) Micro machining,
iii) Rapid prototyping,
iii) Post processing
95. Microsurgical equipments are manufactured by ----------
i) Rapid prototyping,
ii) 3D printing
Iii) Micro machining
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96. ---------is the heart of NC machine tool system and consists of many sub- units inside it
i) Part programme
ii) MCU
iii) Interfaces
97. A lathe machine consists of a head stock
i) On right side of lathe machine
ii) On left side of lathe machine
iii) At center of lathe machine
98. Carriage assembly of lathe machine consists of
i) Electric motor
ii) Tail stock
iii) None of above
99. Carriage assembly of lathe machine consists of
i) Cross slide
ii) Tail stock
iii) Chuck
100. Tool post of lathe machine supports
i) Live center
ii) Cutting tool
iii) Work piece
101. In a lathe machine, the movement of a cutting tool against the rotating work piece
is called as
i) Cutting speed
ii) Feed
iii) Greed
102. The head stock of a lathe machine consists of
i) Power transmission elements
ii) Power absorbing elements
iii) Power producing elements
103. The operations performed on lathe machine are
i) Turning
ii) Chamfering
iii) All of above
i) Knurling
ii) Grooving
iii) All of above
i) Forging
ii) Parting off
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iii) Forming
106. In a lathe machine, during turning operation, the cutting tool is mounted on
i) Tail stock
ii) Chuck
iii) Tool post
107. In a lathe machine, during drilling operation, the cutting tool is mounted on
i) Chuck
ii) Tail stock
iii) Bed
108. The quality of job produced on a lathe machine depends on
i) Rotating speed of work piece
ii) Tail stock
iii) Carriage
109. In a lathe machine, during turning operation, the movement of a cutting tool is
i) Perpendicular to the axis of work piece
ii) Parallel to the axis of work piece
iii) Vertical to the axis of work piece
110. During the lathe machine operation, if the movement of a cutting tool is parallel
to the
axis of work piece, then that operation is termed as
i) Facing operation
ii) Taper turning operation
iii) None of above
111. In a lathe machine, during facing operation, the movement of a cutting tool is
i) Parallel to the axis of work piece
ii) Vertical to the axis of work piece
iii) None of above
UNIT VI : Engineering Mechanisms and their application
in Domestic Appliances
1. The volume of air delivered by the compressor is called.......
A. Free air delivery
B. Compressor capacity
C. Swept volume
D. None of the abovea
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2. The value of air sucked by the compressor during its suction stroke is called.......
A. Free air delivery
B. Compressor capacity
C. Swept volume
3. The ratio of indicated HP to shaft HP is known as.......
A. Compressor efficiency
B. Isothermal efficiency
C. Volumetric efficiency
D. Mechanical efficiency
4. Volumetric efficiency is.......
A.The ratio of stroke volume to clearance volume
B.The ratio of the air actually delivered to the amount of piston
displacement
C.Reciprocal of compression ratio
D.Index of compressor performance
5. Pump transfers the mechanical energy of a motor or of an engine into
_________ of a fluid.
a. pressure energy
b. kinetic energy
c. either pressure energy or kinetic energy
d. pressure energy, kinetic energy or both
6. Which of the following is NOT a type of positive displacement pumps?
a. Reciprocating pump
b. Rotary displacement pump
c. Centrifugal pump
7. ___________ pump is also called as velocity pump.
a. Reciprocating
b. Rotary displacement
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c. Centrifugal
d. Screw
8. Discharge capacity of the reciprocating pump is __________ that of the
centrifugal pump.
a. higher than
b. lower than
c. same as
d. unpredictable
9. The process of filling the liquid into the suction pipe and pump casing upto the
level of delivery valve is called as _________.
a. filling
b. pumping
c. priming
d. leveling
10. Due to slip of the belt, the velocity ratio of the belt drive
a) decreases
b) increases
c) does not change
11. V-belts are usually used for
a) long drives
b) short drives
c) long and short drives
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12. The included angle for the v-belt is usually
a) 100
to 200
b) 200
to 300
c) 300
to 400
d) 600
to 800
13. Power is transmit by belt is dependent on....
A. Arc Contact between belt and pulley
B. Velocity of belt.
C. Tension under which the belt is placed on the pulley
D. All of these
14. For non-parallel shafts, chain drives are highly recommended.
a) True
b) Gear drive is preferred
c) Depends on the transmission ratio
d) can‟t be stated
15. A gear meshes with another gear and a sprocket meshes with another sprocket.
a) True
b) False
16. In a refrigeration system, the expansion device is connected between the
(A) Compressor and condenser
(B) Condenser and receiver
(C) Receiver and evaporator
(D) Evaporator and compressor
17. The vapour compression refrigerator employs the following cycle
A) Rankine
B) Carnot
C)Reversed Rankine
D) Reversed Carnot
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18. The ________ the salt rejection, the better the system is performing.
a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Moderate
d) Poor
19. Which of the following is not a component of packaged air conditioners?
a) Compressor
b) Condenser
c) Chiller
d) Evaporator
20. The process of extraction of the certain required amount of water from air is
known as ___________
a) Heating
b) Cooling
c) Humidification
d) Dehumidification
21. Which of the following refrigerant is widely used in domestic refrigeration?
A ammonia
B alcohol
C oxygen
DD. neon
22. In a refrigerator, the lowest temperature occur at
A evaporator
B expansion valve
C condenser
D compressor
23. Which type of magnet is used in an electric bell?
A Electromagnet
B Carbon magnet
C Temporary magnet
D Permanent magnet.
24. The heating element in an electric iron is wound around a sheet of
A Cotton
B Cardboard
C Mica
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D None of the above
25. The capacity an air conditioner is expressed in
A kWh
B tons
C watt
D None of the above
26. The capacity of a domestic refrigerator is expressed in
A tons
B watt-hours
C watt
D HP
27. In a electric iron, the transfer of heat from coil to base plate is mainly through
A Convection
B Radiation
C Conduction
D None of the above
28. The heating element in an electric iron is usually made of
A Nichrome
B Platinum.
C Brass
D None of the above
29. Which part of washing machine actually perform the cleaning operation of
cloth clothes?
A Agitator
B Timer
C Drain
D Tub
30. In electric iron the heating element is kept
(A) Over the pressure plate
(B) Between the asbestos sheet and pressure plate
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(C) Between the Sole plate and pressure plate
(D) Between the Sole plate and asbestos sheet
31. In microwave oven, the micro waves have a special property that they are
absorb by
(a) water.
(b) fats.
(c) sugar.
(d) all of the above.
32. When the door of a refrigerator is kept open, the temperature of room will
(a) increase.
(b)decrease.
(c) remain same.
(d) none of the above.
33. A differential gear in automobiles is used to
a) reduce speed
b) assist in changing speed
c) provide jerk-free movement of vehicle
d) help in turning
34. The gear train usually employed in clocks is a
a) reverted gear train
b) simple gear train
c) sun and planet gear
d) differential gear
(In reverted gear train and last gear train is on the same axis. Such an arrangement
has application on speed reducers clocks and machine tools.)
35. The term _________ is used to mean the free passage of clean air in a
structure.
a) Circulation
b) Ventilation
c) Dissipation
d) Condensation
36. Where people are working, there has to be ______________ to cause proper
ventilation of the premises.
a) Air change
b) Humidity
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c) Temperature
d) Moisture
37. Exhaust system, supply system, air conditioning, etc. comes under ________
type of ventilation system.
a) Natural
b) Mechanical
c) Man-made
d) Doors
38. In ______________ system, the partial vacuum is created inside of the room by
exhausting the vitiated inside air by fans or blowers.
a) Supply
b) Plenum
c) Air conditioning
d) Exhaust
39. When brakes are applied on a moving vehicle; the kinetic energy is converted
to
(A) Mechanical energy
(B) Heat energy
(C) Electrical energy
(D) Potential energy
40. Hand brake is applicable to
(A) only front wheels
(B) only rear wheels
(C) both front and rear wheels
41. What causes the ink to vaporize in an inkjet printer?
A. Electrical pulses
B. A heating element within the ink cartridge
C. A solenoid in each chamber of the ink cartridge
D. Drying of the ink when the cartridge has not been used for some time
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42. The speed of the rotary compressor is.......as compared to reciprocating air
compressor
A.High
B.Low
C.Equal
D.None of the above
43. The pressure of air at the beginning of the compression stroke
is......atmospheric pressure
A.Equal to
B.Less than
C.More than
D.None of the above
44. A solar water heater system must have:
a) wind turbines
b) PV cells
c) a storage tank
d) gas
45. What is solar water heater?
a) Use solar energy to heat water
b) Use solar energy to generate current which is then used to heat water
c) Use water to generate heat
d) Use solar energy to generate steam
46. Following is not a part of roller chain
(A) Bushing
(B) Inner link plate
(C) Centre link plate
(D) Outer link plate
47. Chain drives are used in
(A) Bicycle
(B) Motorcycle
(C) Automobile
(D) All of the above
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48. What is the purpose of using steel chains?
a) To avoid slipping
b) To avoid friction
c) To avoid accelerated motion
d) To avoid jerks
Efficiency is denoted by η.
Efficiency formula regarding Work is given as
Efficiency formula regarding Energy is given as
49. If a cyclist puts 600 J of work on his bicycle and the bicycle gives out 140 J of
useful work. Calculate the efficiency of a cyclist.
A. 48 %
B. 34%
C. 23.3 %
D. 55%
Solution:
Work Input = 600 J,
Work Output = 140 J
The efficiency is given as
η ={ Work Output / Work Input }× 100 %
= {140 / 600} × 100 %
= 23.3 %
50. A heat engine gives out 500 J of heat energy as useful work. Determine the
energy supplied to it as input if its efficiency is 40%.
A.1400 J
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B. 1250 J
C. 1170 J
D. 1920 J
Solution: Energy output = 500 J
Efficiency η = 40 %
Efficiency η = {Energy Output / Energy Input}× 100 %
∴ Energy input = Energy Output / η
= 500 / 0.40
= 1250 J
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Strength of Mechanical Engineering
Sinhgad College of Engineering, Vadgaon Page 1
Unit 5 -Introduction to Manufacturing
1. Which of the following is manufacturing
process?
a. Forging
b. Welding
c. Casting
d. All of the above
2. Which of the following is not a part of
carriage of the centre lathe?
a. Tool post
b. Apron
c. Compound rest
d. Gear box controls
3. The centre lathes receive their power through
a. Headstock
b. Tailstock
c. Both a & b
4. A flat surface can be produced by a lathe
machine, if the cutting tool moves
a. parallel to the axis of rotation of workpiece
b. at an angle of 450
c. perpendicular to the axis of rotation of
work piece
5. What is the function of pulley drive in lathe
machines
a. Drive the lead screw
b. Change the spindle speed
c. Drive the tail-stock
d. All of the above
6. Which of the following is a mechanism for
mechanized movements of the carriage along
longitudinal axis?
a. Cross-slide
b. Compound rest
c. Apron
d. Saddle
7. The function of taper turning process is to
a. reduce the diameter of a work piece along
its length
b. reduce the diameter by removing material
about an axis offset from the axis of work
piece
c. remove the material from end surface of a
work piece
d. All of the above
8. The process of removing sharp ends of a
work piece is called as
a. Knurling
b. Grooving
c. Facing
d. Chamfering
9. What is meant by drag in casting process?
a. Upper part of casting flask
b. Molten metal
c. Lower part of casting flask
d. Upper & lower part of casting flask
10. Casting replica used to make the cavity is
called as
a. Mould
b. Pattern
c. Cope
11. The process of joining similar or dissimilar
materials by heating them below 4500
C using
non-ferrous filler material is called as
a. Brazing
b. Soldering
c. Welding
d. All of the above
12. Which process squeezes metals into peaks
and troughs with plastic deformation?
a. Knurling
b. Grooving
c. Reaming
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13. Which of the following operations is/are
performed on a lathe machine
a. Spot-facing
b. Parting
c. Reaming
d. All of the above
14. The process of chamfering the entrance of a
drilled hole is known as
a. counter-boring
b. counter-sinking
c. counter-fillet
d. trepanning
15. On drilling machine, which process is known
as reaming?
a. Enlargement of existing hole
b. Hole made by removal of metal along the
hole circumference
c. Smoothly finishing and accurately sizing a
drilled hole
d. All of the above
16. Match the following Manufacturing
processes with their Types and select the
correct option.
1.Metal forming ———— A. Grinding
2.Surface finish —————— B. Rivetting
3.Sheet metal working ---------------C.
Extrusion
4. Metal joining —————
————————-D. Blanking
a. 1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – B
b. 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – B
c. 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C
d. 1 – D, 2 – B, 3 – A, 4 – C
17. In which of the following processes, material
is neither added nor removed but is
deformed into desired shape
a. Surface finishing process
b. Metal forming process
c. Casting
d. Machining
18. What is the process, in which the metal is
caused to flow through a restricted orifice to
create an extremely elongated strip of
uniform and comparatively smaller cross-
sectional area, called?
a. Rolling
b. Extrusion
c. Drawing
d. Spinning
19. Castings are usually
a. costlier than forgings
b. cheaper than forgings
c. at the same rate as forging for
similar metal
20. Which of the following options best
describes the centre lathes?
a. Machining machines
b. Shaping machines
c. Turning machines
21. The process of joining two pieces of metal
with a different fusible metal applied in a
molten state is called as
a. welding
b. soldering
c. both a. and b
22. Which gears are used to connect two
intersecting shaft axes?
a. Crossed helical gear
b. Worm and worm wheel
c. Bevel gears
d. All of the above
23. What is meant by gear ratio?
a. The ratio of pinion speed and gear
speed
b. The ratio of number of teeth on
pinion and number of teeth on gear
c. Both a. and b
24. The sand in its natural or moist state is called
as
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a. green sand
b. loam sand
c. dry sand
25. Micro machining processes (MMPs) are used
to increase selectivity, accuracy,
performance, etc. parameters
a. True
b. False
26. Choose the odd one out.
a. micro-turning
b. micro-milling
c. micro-EBM
d. micro-grinding
Answer Sheet:
Q. No. Solution Q. No. Solution Q. No. Solution Q. No. Solution
1 d 8 d 15 c 22 c
2 d 9 c 16 b 23 a
3 a 10 b 17 b 24 a
4 c 11 b 18 b 25 a
5 b 12 a 19 b 26 c
6 c 13 b 20 c
7 a 14 b 21 b
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Strength of Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice questions
Sinhgad College of Engineering Page 1
UNIT 6 – Engineering Mechanism &
their applications in domestic
appliances.
1. Pump is mechanical devices which is
converting the mechanical energy into
hydraulic energy.
A) True
B) False
2. Which pump flow rate is continuous
and smooth?
A) Reciprocating pump
B) Centrifugal pump
C) All of the above
D) None of the above
3. Which of the following is not the main
part form of centrifugal pump?
A) Impeller
B) Casing
C) Suction pipe
D) Delivery pipe
E) None of the above
4. Which pump work is complicated and
with much noise.
A) Centrifugal pump
B) Reciprocating pump
C) None of the above
D) All of the above
5. A device or machine providing air at
high pressure is called as ……….
A) Pump
B) Air compressor
C) Blower
D) Fan
6. Which of the following is application
for compressor?
A) Household refrigerator
B) Split AC unit
C) Water cooler
D) All of the above
7. Which of the following is not used
application for pump?
A) Hydraulic jacks
B) Kerosene pump
C) Hand operated pump
D) Refrigerator
8. The compressor which is motor driven,
squeeze the refrigerant, raise the
temperature of gas and pressure as well
so that it exists the compressor as a hot
and high-pressure gas.
A) True
B) False
9. Reciprocating pump is suitable for
high capacities and low heads.
A) True
B) False
10. The hydraulic machines which convert
mechanical energy into hydraulic
energy are called as………
A) Fan
B) Compressor
C) Pump
D) Fan
11. What is application for the pump
A) Split AC unit
B) Washing machine
C) Water filter/ purifier unit
D) Vacuum cleaner
12. A machine which is used to produce
large volume of gas with a moderate
increase in pressure is called as……….
A) Fan
B) Pump
C) Blower
D) Compressor
13. A machine that is used to create flow
within a fluid, such as air is known
as……...
A) Compressor
B) Fan
C) Blower
D) Pump
14. It works on the principle of
configuration which is the fictitious
force that pull out from the center on
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the body while moving in the circular
path.
A) Vacuum cleaner
B) Washing machine
C) Refrigerator
D) Centrifugal pump
15. What is an example forblower?
A) Kitchen chimney
B) Reciprocating pump
C) Exhaust fan
D) Dryer
16. Which is not an example for fan.
A) Motor fan
B) Dryer
C) None of the above
D) All of the above
17. If current carrying conductor is placed
in a magnetic field it experiences a
force and start to rotate.
A) Refrigerator
B) Kitchen chimney
C) Motor fan
D) Centrifugal pump
18. It works on the principle of pressure
difference the two locations.
A) Vacuum cleaner
B) Motor fan
C) Split AC
D) Washing machine
19. It is used to remove organic and
inorganic substances like smoke, soot,
water vaporous oil fumes and bits of
food.
A) Refrigerator
B) Motor fan
C) All of the above
D) Kitchen chimney
20. It is a ventilation device which draws
out the polluted air from the room and
replaces it with fresh air.
A) Exhaust fan
B) Motor fan
C) Washing machine
21. The branch of science that deals with
the process of reducing and
maintaining the temperature of that
space or material below the
temperature of surroundings.
A) Refrigeration
B) Motor fan
C) Refrigerator
D) All of above
22. Vapour compression refrigeration
system is most commonly used method
of refrigeration for refrigerators, air -
conditioners.
A) True
B) False
23. An elastic body or elastic machine
element which deflects under the
action of the load and recovers its
originals shape when load is removed.
A) Damper
B) Spring
C) Gear
D) Belt drive
24. springs are used in door closure and
door locks.
A) True
B) False
25. The power from the engine to the rear
axle of an automobile is transmitted by
means of
A) Worm and worm wheel
B) Spur gear
C) Bevel gear
D) Hooke’s joint
E) All of the above
26.The arrangement is called bevel
gearing, when two …………are connected
by gears
A) Intersecting and coplaner shaft
B) non-intersecting and non-coplanar
shafts
C)parallel and coplaner shaft
D)parallel and non-coplaner shaft
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27.When two non-intersecting non-
coplaner shaft are connected by gears, the
arrangement isknown as helical gear
A) Right
B) Wrong
28. An imaginary circle which by pure
rolling action, gives the same motion as
the actual gear, is called
A) Addendum circle
B) Dedendum circle
C) Pitch circle
D) Clearance circle
29. Size of the gear is usually specified by
A) Pressure circle
B) Circular pitch
C) Diametral circle
D) Pitch circle diameter
30. The gear train usually employed in
clocks is a
A) Simple gear train
B) Reverted gear train
C) Sun and planet gear
D) Differential gear
31. In order to have a good grip on the
pulley the V- belt should touch the bottom
of the groove in the pulley
A) True
B) False
32. V – belts are usually used for
A) Long drives
B) Short drives
C) Long and short drives
33. When two pulleys are connected by
means of cross belt drive, then both the
pulley will rotate in ……. directions.
A) Same
B) Opposite
34. When two pulleys are connected by
means of open belt drive, then both the
pulley will rotate …… direction.
A) Same
B) Opposite
35. Which one is positive drive?
A) Flat belt drive
B) V belt drive
C) Chain drive
36.Which of the following is not the
component of chain drive.
A) Chain
B) Sprocket
C) Gear
D) All of the above
37. High torque at the driven shaft the size
of the driven sprocket.
A) Equal to the driving sprocket
B) Less than the driving sprocket
C) More than the driving sprocket
38. What is the role of the sprocket in
chain drive to transmit.
A) Motion
B) Power
C) Velocity
D) Force
39. What is the role of the chain in chain
drive to transmit
A) Motion
B) Power
C) Velocity
D) Force
40.What is the purpose of the valve
A) To control leakage
B) To control power loss
C) To control flow
D) To control motion
41. Which one is not the application of
valve
A) Water tap
B) Flushing of toilet
C) Kitchen
D) Door latch
42. Where the levers are pivoted at point is
known as
A) fulcrum
B) Hinged support
C) Fixed support
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D) Rollers
43. Ratio of load to effort is called as
A) Mechanical Advantage
B) Leverage
C) Efficiency
D) All of the above
44. Ratio of effort arm to load arm is
called as
A) Mechanical Advantage
B) Leverage
C) Efficiency
D) All of the above
45. Efficiency in terms of power is the
ratio of output power to input power
A) False
B) True
46. What is mean by specification
A) Detailed description of requirement
B) Dimensions
C) Material
D) All of the above
47. In electric heater energy conversion is
A) Electric to heat
B) Solar to heat
C) Hydraulic to heat
D) Pressure to heat
48. In solar water heater energy conversion
is
A) Solar to hydraulic
B) Solar to heat
C) Solar to wind
D) Solar to vibration
49. What is the speed ratio
A) Speed of driver shaft to driven
shaft
B) Speed of driven shaft to driver
shaft
C) Velocity of driver shaft to driven
shaft
D) Speed of driven shaft to driver
shaft
50. Gears are used to transmit
A) Motion
B) Power
C) Motion and power
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Question no answer
26 A
27 B
28 C
29 D
30 B
31 B
32 B
33 B
34 B
35 C
36 C
37 C
38 A
39 D
40 C
41 D
42 A
43 A
44 B
45 B
46 D
47 A
48 B
49 A
50 C
Question no answer
1 A
2 B
3 E
4 B
5 B
6 D
7 D
8 A
9 B
10 C
11 C
12 C
13 B
14 B
15 A
16 C
17 C
18 A
19 D
20 A
21 A
22 A
23 B
24 A
25 C
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Strength of mechanical Engg Multiple Choice Questions
Sinhgad College of Engineering pg. 1
UNIT - 3
Q1. The force that opposes the motion of a
vehicle is
1. Rolling resistance
2. Gradient resistance
3. Wind or air resistance
4. All of the mentioned
Q2. Which of these falls under LMV(Light
Motor Vehicle) category based on capacity?
1. Motorbikes
2. Cars
3. Buses
4. Trains
Q3. A conventional suspension system uses
which of these
1. Leaf Springs
2. Coil Springs
3. Torsion bars
4. None of the mentioned
Q4. The electrical system of an automobile
contains which of the following
1. Battery
2. Alternators
3. Lighting systems
Q5. Which of these were or are used in
automobiles to provide suspension.
1. Leaf springs
2. Coil springs
3. Torsion bars
Q6. Which of the following is not a part of the
transmission system
1. Clutch
2. Axles
3. Wheels
4. Gear box
Q7. What is actual power delivered by the
engine known as?
1. Shaft power
2. Horse power
3. Brake power
Q8. Engine pistons are usually made of
aluminium alloy because it
1. Is lighter
2. Wear is less
3. Absorbs shocks
4. Is stronger
Q8. The stroke of an engine is the
1. Volume of the cylinder
2. Length of the connecting rod
3. Internal diameter of the cylinder
4. Distance between TDC and BDC
Q9. In a Otto cycle engine, combustion
occurs at
1. Constant pressure
2. Constant temperature
3. Constant volume
4. Constant heat
Q10. Compression rings have which type
of cross section
1. Rectangular
2. L shaped
3. Keystone
Q11. Cylinder liner materials are made of
alloy iron containing
1. Manganese
2. Nickel
3. Chromium
Q12. Crankshafts are usually constructed
by
1. Casting
2. Drop forging
3. Drawing
4. Extrusion
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Q13. Which stroke for a 4-stroke ic engine
is considered as the working or power
stroke
1. Suction stroke
2. Compression stroke
3. Expansion stroke
4. Exhaust stroke
Q14. Connecting rod is attached to the
piston by the
1. Rod cap
2. Piston pin
3. Cap bolt
4. Lower cap
Q15. The function of a piston is
1. It forms a movable wall of combustion
chamber
2. It transmits turning force to the
crankshaft via connecting rod
3. It functions like crosshead and
transmits side thrusts
Q16. In a four stroke ic engine the number
of strokes covered for one complete
crankshaft revolution is
1. 4
2. 2
3. 1
4. 0.5
Q17. The plate which acts as a packing
between cylinder block and cylinder head
is called
1. Chaplet
2. Liner
3. Gasket
4. Flange
Q18. What is the material of the
connecting rod
1. Mild steel
2. Forged steel
3. Tool steel
4. Cast iron
Q19. What is the disadvantage of using
diesel engine in comparison to petrol
engine
1. Higher weight-to-power ratio
2. Higher maintenance cost
3. Greater starting difficulties
Q20. Piston rings are not completely
closed because
1. Closed rings are hard to manufacture
2. Gap allows the ring to expand and fit
over
3. They are designed to let pass some
lubricant to the combustion chamber
Q21. Piston pin is also known as
1. Gudgeon pin
2. Crank pin
3. Screw pin
Q22. The crankshaft rotates the camshaft
using
1. Belt drive
2. Chain drive
3. Gear drive
4. Motor drive
Q23. In a four stroke engine each cylinder
has
a) One valve
b) Two valves
c) Three valves
d) Four valves
Q24. Which of the following is NOT the
type of Hybrid Vehicle?
1. Plug-in Hybrid
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2. Parallel Hybrid
3. Natural Gas For Vehicles
4. Series Hybrid
Q25.
The Hybrid Electric Vehicle consists of :
1. Internal Combustion Engine +
Electric Motor
2. Motor Electric 1 + Motor electric
2
3. NGV engine + Gasoline engine
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Unit 4 Vehicles Systems
1.Coil springs absorb shocks by
(A) bending
(B) twisting
(C) compression
(D) tension
2.The following is a type of leaf springs
(A) three Quarter elliptic
(B) semi elliptic
(C) quarter elliptic
3.The material used for making torsion bar is
(A) Steel
(B) Cast iron
(C) High carbon steel
4.Shackles are sort of
(A) coupling
(B) link
(C) spring
(D) none of the above
5.Spring shackles are used to join
(A) chassis frame and spring
(B) Spring and Axle
(C) chassis frame and axle
6.Drive (live) axles
(A) are simply beams which supports the vehicle
weight
(B) are usually the front axles
(C) contain differential
7.The following represents the correct
specification of a tyre
(A) 155-80-R-13
(B) R-155-80-13
(C) 155-80-13-R
(D) 155-R-80-13
8.Telescopic shock observer consists of
(A) One chamber
(B) two chambers
(C) three chamber
(D) four chambers
9.Cam actuated double acting hydraulic shock
absorber contains
(A) no piston
(B) single piston
(C) double pistons
(D) three pistons
10.The stabilizers (sway bars) are
(A) alloy steel bars
(B) used to connect shock absorber operating
arms
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(C) placed parallel to cross members
11.The following is (are) the independent
suspension system(s)
(A) Wishbone Arm system
(B) Trailing Link system
(C) Sliding Pillar system
12.The coil spring in used in
(A) Wishbone Arm system
(B) Trailing Link system
(C) Sliding Pillar system
13.Un-sprung weight is
(A) Weigh of vehicle
(B) Weigh of chassis frame
(C) Weight of wheels
(D) Weight of wheels and axles
14.Sprung weight is
(A) Weigh of vehicle minus unsprung weight
(B) Weigh of chassis frame
(C) Weight of wheels
(D) Weight of wheels and axles
15.While in motion, the vehicle suspension is
subjected to
(A) bouncing
(B) pitching
(C) rolling
(D) all
16.A combination of roll and pitch is called
(A) circular pitch
(B) lateral pitch
(C) transverse pitch
(D) diagonal pitch
17.Viscosity index (VI) is a measure for the
change of viscosity with change in
(A) Temperature
(B) Pressure
(C) Volume
18.The following type of Lubrication system is
used in two stroke engines
(A) Petroil (mist) system
(B) Wet sump system
(C) Dry sump system
19.In the following system, lubricating oil is
carried in separate tanks from where it is fed to
the engine
(A) Mist lubrication system
(B) Wet sump system
(C) Dry sump system
(D) Splash system
20.The following type of Lubrication system is
used in Aircraft Engines
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(A) Mist lubrication system
(B) Wet sump system
(C) Dry sump system
(D) Splash system
21.The following type(s) of Oil pump(s) is (are)
used in Engine Lubrication system
(A) Gear type
(B) Rotor type
(C) Plunger type
22.The following is (are) oil pressure gauge(s)
(A) Pressure expansion type
(B) Electric type
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
23.The purpose of crankcase ventilation is to
(A) remove harmful particles from the engine
(B) provide proper lubrication to the engine
(C) provide air for combustion to the engine
24.The following part(s) is(are) lubricated by
splash system
(A) Piston and piston rings
(B) Tappets
(C) Cams on camshaft
25.The following part is not lubricated by
Pressure feed system
(A) Timing gears
(B) Valve rods and Push rods
(C) Rocker arms
(D) Main bearings of crankshaft
26.In an engine the temperature of the piston
will be more at
(A) The crown of the piston
(B) The skirt of the piston
(C) The piston walls
(D) The land of the piston
27.The firing order of a four cylinder inline
engine is usually
(A) 1-2-3-4
(B) 1-2-4-3
(C) 1-3-4-2
(D) 4-1-2-3
28.Engine alternator is driven by:
(A) V-belt drive
(B) Flat belt drive
(C) Gear drive
(D) Chain drive
29.Which part is not common between the
petrol and diesel engines?
(A) Air cleaner
(B) Silencer
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(C) Crank shaft
(D) Spark plug
30.The device for smoothening out the power
impulses from the engine:
(A) Crank shaft
(B) Flywheel
(C) Clutch
(D) Shock absorber
31.The instrument used for measuring the
specific gravity of electrolyte in a battery:
(A) Cell tester
(B) Voltmeter
(C) Hydrometer
(D) Thermometer
32.The stroke of an engine in which the exhaust
valve is fully closed:
(A) Suction
(B) Compression
(C) Power
(D) Exhaust
33.Find out the odd one from the following:
(A) Master cylinder
(B) Engine cylinder
(C) Wheel cylinder
(D) Brake drum
34.The property of lubricating oil to resist flow
is called:
(A) Viscosity
(B) Flash point
(C) Pore point
(D) Fire point
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Basic Mechanical
Engineering
Unit IA
Que. ----------- are power transmitting
elements
A. Nuts
B. Bolts
C. shafts
D. rivets
Ans. C
Que. ---------- is a supporting element
A. Chassis
B. crankshaft
C. camshaft
D. countershaft
Ans. A
Que. ----------- is a rotating element which
transmits power
A. axel
B. mechanism
C. shaft
D. none of these
Ans. C
Que. Brackets are
A. supporting elements
B. power transmitting element
C. holding element
D. none of above
Ans. C
Que. Holding elements are used to
A. to hold the parts
B. to modify the parts
C. to separate the parts
D. to support the parts
Ans. A
Que. _____ keys are difficult to fit
A. Saddle
B. Round
C. Tangent
D. Splines
Ans. C
Que. ___ are multiple keys which are
made integral with the shaft.
A. Saddle
B. kenedy
C. pin
D. Splines
Ans. D
Que. Shaft may be
A. solid
B. hollow
C. solid or hollow
D. neither solid nor hollow
Ans. C
Que. The friction moment in a clutch with
uniform wear as compared to friction
moment with uniform pressure is
A. more
B. equal
C. less
D. more or less depending on speed
Ans. C
Que. The brake used in railway coaches is
A. shoe brake
B. block brake
C. band brake
D. disk brake
Ans. B
Que. When the frictional force helps to
apply the brake, the brake is said to be
A. partially self energizing
B. self-locking
C. back-stop
D. self-acting
Ans. A
Que. In order to prevent the brake arm
from grabbing, the moment of friction
force about the brake arm pivot should be
A. less than the total required braking
effort
B. more than the total required braking
effort
C. equal to the total required braking
effortess
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Ans. A
Que. In case of multi-disk clutches, oil is
used
A. to reduce the friction
B. to carry away the heat
C. to lubricate the contacting surfaces
D. for all above functions
Ans. D
Que. The friction material of the clutch
should have
A. high coefficient of friction
B. low coefficient of friction
C. high surface hardness
D. high endurance limit strength
Ans. A
Que. The sleeve or muff coupling is
designed as a
A. hollow shaft
B. solid shaft
C. thick cylinder
D. hollow cyllinder
Ans. A
Que. The clutch is located between the
transmission and the
A. engine
B. rear axle
C. propeller shaft
D. differential
Ans. A
Que. The flywheel and the pressure plate
bind the clutch disc between them so that
the engine and the transmission can be
engaged
A. correct
B. incorrect
C. partially incorrect
D. partially correct
Ans. A
Que. Which type of key is used for
mounting shifting gears in gear boxes?
A. Saddle key
B. Flat key
C. Square key
D. Splines
Ans. D
Que. Which of the following statement is
wrong ?
A. A key is used as a temporary fastening
B. A key is subjected to tensile stresses
C. A key is always inserted parallel to the
axis of the shaft
D. A key prevents relative motion between
the shaft & boss of the pulley
Ans. B
Que. A transmission shaft does not
includes
A. counter shaft
B. line shaft
C. over head shaft
D. axle
Ans. D
Que. --------------- are mounted on shaft
A. pulleys & gears
B. flywheel
C. couplings & cranks
D. all of these
Ans. D
Que. Power is transmitted through the
shaft by ------------------
A. axial force & torque
B. radial force & torque
C. tangential force & torque
D. shear force & torque
Ans. C
Que. Machine shaft is an____________ of
machine
A. connecting part
B. separating part
C. integral part
D. non integral part
Ans. C
Que. Which of the following element are
not used to transmit power
A. Shafts
B. Key
C. Clutch
D. Coupling
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SME Unit 1-4 MCQs For SPPU Syllabus

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