2. 1. What is the focus of community-
based care?
A. acute care
B. analyses of prevailing disease
patterns in a community
C. community advocacy
D. prevention and primary care

3. 2. Nurses working in home health care must
have all of the following skills and abilities.
Which of these forms the foundation for all
others?
A. ability to conduct ongoing client and family
teaching
B. ability to work with the family to meet the
client’s needs
C. excellent assessment skills and a keen
ability to identify problems
D. excellent nursing skills and creativity

4. 3. Early detection, diagnosis,
screening, and intervention to
reduce the consequences of a
health problem are the focus of
which type of prevention?
A. physical
B. primary
C. secondary
D. tertiary

5. 4. Caring for a person with a health
problem to prevent its further
progression is what type of
prevention?
A. physical
B. primary
C. secondary
D. Tertiary

6. 5. A group of people who have chosen
to live together but aren’t
necessarily related by marriage or
blood is known as:
A. a cohabitation family
B. an extended family
C. a blended family
D. a communal family

7. 6. Which of the following family
planning methods requires the
couple to assess the quality of
cervical mucus throughout the
menstrual cycle?
A. Rhythm method
B. Coitus interruptus
C. Billing’s method
D. Basal body temperature record

8. 7. A teacher brings an 8-year-old girl to you
because she has a rash. You examine her and
notice areas of widespread pimples and thin,
pencil-mark lines on her head, neck,
shoulders, and palms along with abrasions on
her skin from scratching and digging. She
further reports that she has three cats and
two dogs and all of them are itching as well.
What would you suspect in this case?
A. Contact dermatitis
B. Fleas
C. Scabies
D. Rubella

9. 8. During parenting classes, the nurse teaches parents
the importance of immunizations and the schedule
that will be implemented. Which of the following
findings indicate the nurse’s teaching has been
effective?
A. The parents are able to list three reasons to
immunize and when to begin immunization
B. Taking the infant for his immunization at 2 weeks of
age
C. The parents state their intent to follow a printed
immunization schedule
D. By 9 months of age, the infant has received the
recommended immunizations

10. 9. The vaccines are very sensitive at
various temperatures and require
proper storage to avoid spoilage
and maintain its potency. The BCG
(freeze dried form) and DPT should
be kept in temperature of:
A. –15 °C to –25 °C
B. +2 °C to +8 °C
C. +15 °C to +25 °C
D. –2 °C to –8 °C

11. 10. How many drops of OPV will
you administer to a 6-week-old
infant?
A. 2 drops
B. 1 drop
C. 5 drops
D. Hold the vacc ine because the
first dose of OPV is only given
to 2-months-old baby

12. 11. Which practice applied by cold
chain managers will help to provide
quality potent vaccines and prevent
wastage due to expiration?
A. Recycling of vaccine
B. Reconstituting vaccine with
additional solvent
C. Imported vaccine allocate now
(IVAN)
D. First expiry and first out (FEFO)

13. 12.An adult has received an injection
of immunoglobulin. The nurse
knows that the client will develop
which of the following types of
immunity?
A. Active natural immunity
B. Active artificial immunity
C. Passive natural immunity
D. Passive artificial immunity

14. 13.The nurse knows which of the
following is true about immunity?
A. Antibody-mediated defense occurs
through the T-cell system
B. Cellular immunity is mediated by
antibodies produced by the B-cells
C. Antibodies are produced by the B-cells
D. Humoral or circulating immunity is lost
with AIDS

15. 14. As community health nurses engage in
the process of community
empowerment, it is essential that they:
A. gather data for the community
B. form partnerships with people in the
community
C. make decisions for people in the
community
D. accept responsibility for people’s actions

16. 15. A nursing activity designed to
diagnose and treat a disease or
condition in its earliest stages, before
it becomes full-blown, would be
classified as:
A. primary prevention
B. secondary prevention
C. tertiary prevention
D. health education

17. 16. A key component of health promotion is
that people in a community are able to:
A. access private health insurance to cover
their medical expenses
B. recognize their health needs and help
develop strategies to improve their own
health care
C. stop activities such as smoking or alcohol
consumption that are harmful to health
D. none of the above

18. 17. Public health measures to protect the
community/public from
environmental hazards include:
A. reducing air pollution in cities
B. processing hazardous waste and
sewage safely and effectively and
keeping drinking water supplies safe
C. reducing work-related injuries
D. all of the above

19. 18. Community health nurses help
influence the health of communities
through which of the following
functions?
A. legislating health behavior
B. recording health status of individuals in
a similar geographic region
C. influencing health behavior and
engaging in health promotion
D. none of the above

20. 19. The health behavior choices that are
essential to promoting health and
preventing disease are:
A. getting the right kind of food, adequate
sleep, physical exercise, and effectively
handling stress
B. stopping smoking and taking vacations
C. making sure that all prescription
medications are taken properly and at the
right time
D. avoiding crowds during flu season

21. 20. Directly Observed Treatment Short
Course can do all of the following
except:
A. cure TB patients
B. prevents new infection among
children and adults
C. stops resistance to anti-TB drugs
D. require hospitalization

22. 21. Which statement is inaccurate related to
relevant TB statistics?
A. Most TB patients belong to the 0 – 15 age
groups
B. The Philippines is among the 22 high –
burdened countries in the world
C. The 6th leading cause of illness among
Filipinos
D. The 6th leading cause of deaths among
Filipinos

23. 22. Elements of DOTS that need to be
fulfilled includes all of the following
except:
A. regular chest x-ray for diagnosis
B. regular supply of anti-TB drugs
C. standardized recording and reporting
of TB data
D. supervised treatment by a treatment
partner

24. 23. Pulmonary TB is suspected if
which symptom is present?
A. sudden loss of weight
B. precordial chest pain
C. cough for more than 2 weeks
D. hematemesis

25. 24.Which of the following statements
about TB treatment is incorrect?
A. treatment render patients non-
infectious and cured
B. single drug is appropriate
C. combination of 3-4 anti-TB drugs is
the treatment of choice
D. tuberculosis is a curable disease

26. 25.In selected Asian countries, the
following health indicators are
utilized except:
A. HIV/AIDS
B. population growth
C. life expectancy
D. under-five mortality

27. 26.The four pillars of Family
Planning does not include:
A. respect for life
B. reproductive health
C. responsible parenthood
D. informed choice

28. 27.Safe Motherhood Policy is
contained in which Elements of RH
Services:
A. Maternal – Child Health and
Nutrition
B. Family Planning
C. Adolescent and Youth Health
D. Prevention and Treatment of
Infertility and Sexual Dysfunction

29. 28. Integrated Reproductive Health
Framework utilizes all of the
guiding principles except:
A. gender sensitive
B. evidence – based
C. client – centered
D. partnership and networking

30. 29.New Immunization Schedule for
Infants under the EPI Program
for Hepatitis Vaccine is given at
ages:
A. birth, 6 weeks, 10 weeks
B. birth, 6 weeks, 14 weeks
C. birth, 14 weeks, 9 months
D. 6 weeks, 10 weeks, 14 weeks

31. 30. A Fully Immunized Child (FIC) is given:
A. 1 dose of BCG, 3 doses of OPV
B. 1 dose of BCG, 3 doses of DPT
C. 1 dose of BCG, 3 doses of OPV, 1 dose
of MV + 3 doses of Hepatitis B vaccine
D. 1 dose of BCG, 3 doses of OPV and
DPT, 1 dose of MV + 3 doses of
Hepatitis B vaccine

32. 31. The Vaccine Vial Monitor (VVM) says
that the vaccine cannot be used if:
A. the inner square is lighter than the
outer circle
B. the expiry date has not passed
C. the inner square is still lighter than the
outer circle at a later time
D. the color of the inner square matches
that of the outer circle

33. How to read a vaccine vial monitor
• The inner square is lighter than the outer circle. If the expiry date
has not passed,
USE the vaccine.
• As time passes the inner square is still lighter than the outer circle.
If the expiry date has not passed,
USE the vaccine.
• Discard point: the colour of the inner square matches that of the
outer circle.
DO NOT USE the vaccine.
• Beyond the discard point: inner square is darker than the outer
circle.
DO NOT USE the vaccine.

34. 32. The highest attributable
causal/associated factor of all
childhood deaths in children under 5
years is:
A. under nutrition
B. neonatal death
C. pneumonia
D. diarrhea

35. 33.The highest cause of maternal
deaths in Asia is:
A. hemorrhage
B. anemia
C. sepsis
D. obstruction

36. 34. Essential package of child survival
interventions include all except:
A. skilled attendance during
pregnancy
B. exclusively breastfeeding for 6
weeks
C. case management of diarrhea
D. use of insecticide treated bed nets

37. 35.Micronutrient
supplementation includes
all except:
A. Vitamin A supplementation
B. Iron
C. Use of iodized salt
D. Ca supplements

38. 36. A client states that he is considering using herbal
therapy as a natural source to aid in dietary
health. What suggestions would you give to the
client to assist with this decision?
A. “Herbal therapy treatments reflects standard
doses so all similar products will provide the
same biologic effect.”
B. “Herbal therapy requires a prescription and may
be an expensive treatment modality.”
C. “It is important to inform your healthcare
practitioner about your choice to start herbal
therapy.”
D. “Herbal therapy is a natural form of treatment
with very few side effects.”

39. 37. Which of the following problems can arise
when a client taking anticoagulant therapy
eats a large amount of garlic?
A. The garlic will assist in the coagulation
process and accelerate clot formation.
B. None: garlic has no effect on blood
coagulation.
C. None: garlic helps to support immune
function.
D. Bleeding can occur because garlic inhibits
platelet aggregation.

40. 38. An herbal medicine used to
lower blood cholesterol is:
A. Ampalaya
B. Bawang
C. Ulasimang bato
D. Yerba Buena

41. 39. Integrated Management of Childhood
Illness (IMCI) as a strategy is concerned
with:
A. management of most common illness
across all age groups
B. health promotion and rehabilitation
C. involvement of family members and the
community in the health care process
D. reduction of death and frequency severity
of illness and disability

42. 40. The Metro Manila Developmental
Screen Test (MMDST) is a tool in
the development assessment of all
of its following age groups except:
A. newborn
B. infant
C. toddler
D. preschooler

43. 41.The first step utilized in a first
level assessment in family
nursing practice is the presence
of:
A. Wellness Condition
B. Health Threats
C. Health Deficits
D. Foreseeable Crisis

44. 42. The network of health facilities
and personnel carrying out the
task of rendering health care to
people:
A. Health Care System
B. Health Care Delivery
C. Health Care Delivery System
D. Philippine Health Care System

45. 43.Elements of Reproductive
Health include all except:
A. Maternal and Child Health and
Nutrition
B. Men’s Reproductive Health
C. Violence Against Women
D. Expanded Immunization
Program

46. 44.The leading cause of mortality in
the Philippines is/are:
A. pneumonia
B. accidents
C. diseases of the heart
D. diabetes mellitus

47. 45. Clinical symptoms of Inherited
Metabolic Diseases (IMB) is
mainly in what age group?
A. in utero
B. birth – 1 year
C. 1 year - puberty
D. puberty – 50 years

48. 46.Some of the disorder commonly
included in neonatal screening
panel includes all except:
A. Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
B. Congenital Hyperthyroidism
C. Phenylketonuria
D. Galactosemia

49. Newborn Screening Package
1. Congenital Hypothyroidism (CH)
• results from lack or absence of thyroid
hormone, which is essential to growth of the
brain and the body.
• not detected and hormone replacement is not
initiated within (4) weeks, the baby's physical
growth will be stunted and she/he may suffer
from MENTAL RETARDATION

50. Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH)
• is an endocrine disorder that causes
severe salt loss, dehydration and
abnormally high levels of male sex
hormones in both boys and girls.
• If not detected and treated early, babies
may die within 7-14 days.

51. Galactosemia (GAL)
• a condition in which the body is unable
to process galactose, the sugar present
in milk.
• Can result to liver damage, brain
damage and cataracts.

52. Phenylketonuria (PKU)
• body cannot properly use one of the
building blocks of protein called
phenylalanine.
• Excessive accumulation of
phenylalanine in the body causes
brain damage.

53. Glucose-6-Phosphate
Dehydrogenase Deficiency
(G6PD Def)
• body lacks the enzyme called
G6PD. Babies
• with this deficiency may have
hemolytic anemia

54. 47. Blood specimen for
testing is taken from the
A. ear lobe
B. fingers
C. foot
D. sternum

55. 48.The traditional newborn
screening was only concerned
with:
A. premature death
B. infectious diseases
C. hearing and heart problems
D. inherited metabolic diseases

56. 49.The fourth level of clientele
in CHN practice is:
A. the individual
B. a specific population group
C. the family
D. the community

57. 50. Compensatory Intervention in CHN
Practice is based on the risk
approach to health care which
includes all of the following
except:
A. Curative Measure
B. Preventive Action
C. Rehabilitative Action
D. Supportive Care

58. NURSING PRACTICE TEST IV

59. Situation 2:
Theresa, a 20-year-old college
student, lives in a small
dormitory with 30 other
students. During her annual
physical exam, she was diagnosed
as having bacterial pneumonia
and was admitted to the hospital.

60. 51. The nurse is informed that Theresa
has the strain of bacterial most
frequently found in community-
acquired pneumonia. The nurse
suspects that the agent is:
A. Haemophilus influenzae
B. Klebsiella
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae

61. 52. All of the following are
manifestations of bacterial
pneumonia except:
A. fever
B. bradycardia
C. stabbing or pleuritic chest pain
D. tachycardia

62. 53.The nurse expects that Theresa
will be medicated with the
usual antibiotic of choice,
which is:
A. cephalosporin
B. Clindamycin
C. erythromycin
D. penicillin G.

63. 54. The nurse is aware that Theresa may develop
arterial hypoxemia, because of all of the
following except:
A. bronchospasm causes alveolar collapse, which
decreases the surface area necessary for
perfusion.
B. mucosal edema occludes the alveoli, thereby
producing a drop in alveolar oxygen.
C. venous blood is shunted from the right to the
left side of the heart.
D. accumulation of fluid in the lungs

64. 55.Theresa is expected to
respond to antibiotic therapy:
A. within 6 hours
B. between 1 and 2 days
C. by the fourth day
D. after 7 days

65. 56. Nursing management
includes assessment for all of
the following complications
except:
A. atelectasis
B. hemoptysis
C. respiratory alkalosis
D. ascites

66. Situation 3:
Mang Nano, a construction worker
is admitted to the clinical area for
confirmation of suspected
tuberculosis. He is anorexic and
fatigued and suffers from
“indigestion.” His temperature is
slightly elevated every afternoon.

67. 57. Mang Nano’s Mantoux tuberculin test
yields an induration area of 10 mm. This
result is interpreted as indicating that:
A. active disease is present
B. he has been exposed to M. tuberculosis
or has been vaccinated with BCG.
C. preventive treatment should be initiated.
D. the reaction is doubtful and should be
repeated.

68. 58. After Mang Nano has undergone a
series of additional tests, the
diagnosis is confirmed by:
A. a chest radiograph
B. sputum microscopy
C. a positive multiple-puncture skin test
D. repeated Mantoux tests that yield
indurations of 10 mm or greater

69. 59. Mang Nano is started on a
multiple-drug regimen. Nursing
management includes observing
for hepatotoxicity when which
drug is used?
A. ethambutol
B. isoniazid
C. rifampin
D. pyrazinamide

70. 60. Mang Nano needs to know that
the initial intensive treatment
is usually given daily for:
A. 2 weeks
B. 2 to 4 weeks
C. 2 months
D. 4 to 6 months

71. 61. Mang Nano is informed that he will
no longer be considered infectious
after:
A. repeat Mantoux tests are negative
B. serial radiographs show improvement
C. two consecutive sputum specimens
are negative
D. all of the above parameters are met

72. 62. According to one early study, the
greatest number of reported
HIV cases were due to:
A. male homosexual contact
B. male injection drug use
C. female homosexual contact
D. female injection drug use

73. 63. A laboratory test that
determines the presence of the
HIV antibody in the blood is:
A. WBC
B. T cell count
C. ELISA
D. Western blot

74. 64. One of the most systemic side
effects of anti-HIV drugs is:
A. osteoporosis
B. hyperglycemia
C. lipodystrophy syndrome
D. pancreatitis

75. 65. The most common infection in
person with AIDS is:
A. cytomegalovirus
B. Legionnaire’s disease
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Pneumocystis carini pneumonia
(PCP)

76. 66. The most common
malignancy seen with HIV
infection is:
A. carcinoma of the skin
B. Kaposi’s sarcoma
C. pancreatic cancer
D. stomach cancer

77. 67. Chickenpox and herpes
zoster (also known as
shingles), are caused by the
same viral agent:
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Shigella
C. Plasmodium vivax
D. Varicella zoster

78. 68. A common bacterial cause of
diarrhea that has been linked to
the ingestion of undercooked
beef is:
A. Escherichia coli
B. Campylobacter
C. Salmonella
D. Shigella

79. 69. In relation to the public health
implications of gonorrhea diagnosed in
a 16-year-old, the nurse should be
most interested in:
A. Finding the client’s contacts
B. Interviewing the client’s parents
C. The reasons for the client’s
promiscuity
D. Instructing the client about birth
control measures

80. 70. The nurse teaches a client that
gonorrhea is highly infectious
and:
A. Is easily cured
B. Occurs very rarely
C. Can produce sterility
D. Is limited to the external
genitalia

81. 71. When a client is diagnosed as
having gonorrhea, the nurse
should expect the physician to
order:
A. Acyclovir (Zovirax)
B. Colistin (Cortisporin)
C. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)
D. Dactinomycin (Actinomycin)

82. 72. A female client is very upset with her
diagnosis of gonorrhea and asks the nurse,
“What can I do to prevent getting another
infection in the future? The nurse is aware
that the teaching has been understood
when the client states, “My best protection
is to:
A. Douche after every intercourse.”
B. Avoid engaging in sexual behavior
C. Insist that my partner use a condom.”
D. Use a spermicidal cream with intercourse.”

83. 73. In relation to the public health
implications of gonorrhea diagnosed
in a 16-year-old, the nurse should be
most interested in:
A. Finding the client’s contacts
B. Interviewing the client’s parents
C. The reasons for the client’s
promiscuity
D. Instructing the client about birth
control measures

84. 74.When teaching a client about the
drug therapy for gonorrhea, the
nurse should state that it:
A. Cures the infection
B. Prevents complications
C. Controls its transmission
D. Reverses pathologic changes

85. 75. A client cannot understand how
syphilis was contracted because there
has been no sexual activity for several
days. As part of teaching, the nurse
explains that the incubation period for
syphilis is about:
A. 48 to 72 hours
B. 1 week
C. 2 to 6 weeks
D. 4 months

86. 76. Syphilis is not considered
contagious in the:
A. Tertiary stage
B. Primary stage
C. Incubation stage
D. Secondary stage

87. 77. The nurse should asses a
client with psoriasis for:
A. Pruritic lesions
B. Multiple petechiae
C. Shiny, scaly lesions
D. Erythematous macules

88. 78. The nurse should explain to the
client with psoriasis that
treatment usually involves:
A. Avoiding exposure to the sun
B. Topical application of steroids
C. Potassium permanganate baths
D. Debridement of necrotic plaques

89. 79. When caring for a client with
scabies, the nurse should be
aware that scabies is:
A. Highly contagious
B. A chronic problem
C. Caused by a fungus
D. Associated with other allergies

90. 80. It is most important for the nurse
to observe a client with the
diagnosis of tetanus for:
A. Muscular rigidity
B. Respiratory tract spasms
C. Restlessness and irritability
D. Spastic voluntary muscle
contractions

91. 81.A characteristic
manifestation of rabies
includes:
A. Diarrhea
B. Memory loss
C. Urinary stasis
D. Pharyngeal spasm

92. 82. The nurse is aware that bacteria
that produce meningitis that may
enter the central nervous system
via the:
A. Genitourinary tract
B. Gastrointestinal tract
C. Integumentary system
D. Cranial apertures or sinuses

93. 83.The term condylomata
acuminata refers to:
A. Scabies
B. Herpes zoster
C. Venereal warts
D. Cancer of the epididymis

94. 84.To reduce the risk of infection in a patient
with immunosuppression from
chemotherapy treatment at home, the
nurse advises the family to:
A. Encourage the patient to eat uncooked
fruits.
B. Make their house sterile.
C. Restrict visits from people with contagious
illnesses.
D. Avoid patient contact at all times.

95. 85. To prevent infection of family members
caring for a patient with HIV at home, family
members should be encouraged to:
A. Use caution when shaving the patient.
B. Use separate dishes for the patient and
family members.
C. Use separate bed linens for the patient.
D. Disinfect the patient’s bedclothes.