11338 13634 July 07 (I)

Question Paper
Information Technology and Systems– I (MB231): July 2007

• Answer all questions.
• Each question carries one mark.

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1. Which of the following technology was used in the First Generation computers? Answer
>
(a) Transistors
(b) Vacuum tubes
(c) ULSI technology
(d) Integrated circuits
(e) VLSI technology.

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2. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about RISC architecture? Answer
>
I. RISC microprocessors execute the instructions very fast.
II. RISC chips are cheaper to design and produce compared to CISC chips.
III. RISC uses more complex set of instructions when compared to CISC architecture.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Only (II) above
(c) Only (III) above
(d) Both (I) and (II) above
(e) Both (II) and (III) above.

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3. CRAY3, CRAYXMP, PARAM 9000, PARAM 10000 are the examples of Answer
>
(a) Analog computers
(b) Supercomputers
(c) Minicomputers
(d) Microcomputers
(e) Servers.

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4. Which of the following generation computers are based on artificial intelligence and possess voice Answer
recognition capabilities? >
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
(e) Fifth.

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5. To improve the secondary cache performance, microprocessors are provided in plastic modules that Answer
contain a special type of secondary cache called as >
(a) Frontside cache
(b) Backside cache
(c) Upside cache
(d) Downside cache
(e) Middle cache.

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6. Memory Buffer Register holds Answer
>
(a) The address of the active memory location
(b) Data on its way to and from memory

(c) The address of the next instruction to be executed
(d) Accumulated results and data to be accumulated
(e) An instruction while it is being executed.

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7. Which of the following units will convert the input data into binary codes? Answer
>
(a) Input interfaces
(b) Transformation interfaces
(c) Output interfaces
(d) Internal processing interfaces
(e) Binary interfaces.

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8. The significant advance in the evolution of computer systems was the invention of analytical engine. Answer
Who among the following invented analytical engine? >
(a) John Napier
(b) William Oughtred
(c) Pascal
(d) Charles Babbage
(e) Leibniz.

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9. A major step forward in the evolution of computer systems is the invention of Punch cards. Who among Answer
the following developed the concept of Punch cards? >
(a) Charles Babbage
(b) Herman Hollerith
(c) John Napier
(d) Pascal
(e) Leibniz.

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10. Which of the following is correct with respect to Access Speed? Answer
>
(a) RAM>Hard disk>CD-ROM> Cache memory
(b) RAM>Hard disk>Cache memory>CD-ROM
(c) Cache memory>Hard disk>RAM>CD-ROM
(d) Cache memory >CD-ROM>RAM>Hard disk
(e) Cache memory>RAM>Hard disk>CD-ROM.

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11. 1 Giga byte is equal to Answer
>
(a) One million bytes
(b) One billion bytes
(c) Ten million bytes
(d) Ten billion bytes
(e) Ten kilo bytes.

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12. In virtual memory, program instructions and data are divided into units of fixed size called Answer
>
(a) Pages
(b) Frames
(c) Segments
(d) Blocks
(e) Cells.

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13. If the memory is full, the operating system starts storing copies of pages in a hard disk file called Answer
>
(a) Flat file
(b) Swap file

(c) Program file
(d) Text file
(e) Binary file.

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14. Data is recorded on the disk in concentric circular bands called Answer
>
(a) Segments
(b) Clusters
(c) Sectors
(d) Tracks
(e) Blocks.

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15. Which of the following signals are generated by input/output devices, which inform operating system Answer
that some action has taken place? >
(a) Device drivers
(b) Interrupts
(c) Pages
(d) Threads
(e) Informers.

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16. Which of the following memory enables users to work with more memory than what is installed on the Answer
computer’s mother board? >
(a) Cache memory
(b) Virtual memory
(c) Secondary memory
(d) Read only memory
(e) Registers.

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17. The most important feature(s) that are added in Netware 6.5 Operating System is/are Answer
>
(a) Netware directory services
(b) It has ability to convert any type of server into web server
(c) Centralized web management
(d) Virtual office application
(e) Both (c) and (d) above.

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18. The most important feature added in Vista was Windows AERO. AERO is a visual style that stands Answer
for >
(a) Application, Enterprise, Reflective and Open
(b) Authentic, Enterprise, Reflective and Open
(c) Authentic, Energetic, Response and Open
(d) Authentic, Energetic, Reflective and Open
(e) Application, Energetic, Response and Open.

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19. UNIX Operating System is widely used because Answer
>
I. It provides easy portability across systems.
II. The commands used in UNIX operating system are easy to learn.
III. It is multi-user and multi-tasking operating system.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Only (III) above
(c) Both (I) and (III) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

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20. In Disk Operating System, which of the following file handles the file and memory management? Answer
>
(a) COMMAND.SYS
(b) COMMAND.COM
(c) MSDOS.COM
(d) MSDOS.SYS
(e) IO.SYS.

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21. In UNIX, which of the following commands is used to login securely to remote node? Answer
>
(a) sh nd
(b) ssh nd
(c) shh nd
(d) shs nd
(e) hss nd.

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22. The user interface in Mac OS X is called Answer
>
(a) System
(b) Finder
(c) Aqua
(d) Parser
(e) Tee.

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23. In Windows XP Operating System, what does XP stands for? Answer
>
(a) Expert
(b) Experience
(c) Exposure
(d) Experiment
(e) Exponent.

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24. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true? Answer
>
I. Objective information is known as opinions.
II. Subjective information is known as facts.
III. Objective information is unique and true in nature.
(a) Only (III) above
(b) Both (I) and (II) above

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25. Which of the following statement(s) is/are false about information? Answer
>
I. Secondary information is usually collected from internal sources.
II. Primary information is less reliable and not always accurate.
III. Secondary information is easier and cheaper to collect.
(a) Only (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (II) above

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26. Which of the following information is used for understanding the perceptions and interpretations of Answer
individuals and situations? >
(a) Knowledge information

(b) Aggregated information
(c) Objective information
(d) Qualitative information
(e) Informal information.

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27. Which of the following types of information provides details about all entities in a group? Answer
>
(a) Detailed information
(b) Aggregated information
(c) Sampled information
(d) Summarized information
(e) Informal information.

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28. Which of the following devices convert digital signals from input/output devices into appropriate Answer
frequencies at a transmission terminal and convert them back into digital signals at a receiving terminal? >
(a) Modems
(b) Multiplexers
(c) Routers
(d) Hubs
(e) Gateways.

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29. Which of the following parameters of quality refers to the information which is free from errors and Answer
bias? >
(a) Age
(b) Validity
(c) Impartiality
(d) Consistency
(e) Reliability.

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30. Errors are not always deliberate and therefore certain measures can be taken to minimize them. So Answer
which of the following measures are used to reduce the uncertainty of information? >
I. Internal controls.
II. Additional parameters that state the level of confidence with regard to the accuracy of
information.
III. Instructions pertaining to measurement and processing of information.
IV. Internal audit and external audit.
(a) Both (I) and (II) above
(b) Both (I) and (III) above
(c) Both (I) and (IV) above
(e) Both (II) and (IV) above.

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31. Which of the following is basically a feature or a characteristic that is shared among a group of items, Answer
ideas or entities? >
(a) Procedure
(b) Process
(c) Principle
(d) Concept
(e) Piping.

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32. Hyper Text Markup Language (HTML) is Answer
>
I. A script in which documents in the World Wide Web are formatted.
II. A script that supports links to other documents as well as graphics, audio and video files.

III. A protocol for transferring files over the Internet.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Only (II) above
(d) Both (I) and (III) above

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33. Acronym for IMAP is Answer
>
(a) Internet Message Access Protocol
(b) International Message Access Protocol
(c) Internet Mail Administration Protocol
(d) International Mail Administration Protocol
(e) International Multi-user Access Protocol.

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34. ICQ is a popular Answer
>
(a) File transfer protocol
(b) Internet paging program
(c) Internet faxing program
(d) Internet telephony program
(e) Mail transfer protocol.

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35. Data conferencing is an interactive way of sharing information among users located at different Answer
locations over a network of computers. Application sharing is a term used in data conferencing which >
I. Allows two or more participants to interact with each other by working on a single application that
is loaded onto the computer system of one of the participants.
II. Facilitates sharing the same computer screen by all participants.
III. Has similarities with remote control software.
(a) Only (I) above

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36. Which of the following is/are project management groupware? Answer
>
(a) Lotus Notes
(b) Lotus Organizer
(c) Netscape Collabra
(d) Both (a) and (c) above
(e) Both (b) and (c) above.

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37. Which of the following Enterprise Communication tools is a collection of user-submitted notes or Answer
messages on various subjects that are posted to servers on a world wide network? >
(a) Internet Paging
(b) Internet Fax
(c) Internet Telephony
(d) Internet Relay Chat
(e) Usenet.

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38. Which of the following are examples of vertical applications? Answer
>
I. Word processing software.
II. Bill generation software.
III. Accounting software.

IV. Spreadsheet software.
(b) Both (I) and (III) above
(c) Both (I) and (IV) above
(e) Both (II) and (IV) above.

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39. Which of the following features of word processing software enables the user to automatically move to Answer
a next line? >
(a) Word wrapping
(b) Word alignment
(c) Word justification
(d) Word count
(e) Auto format.

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40. In MS Excel, each worksheet has Answer
>
(a) 128 columns, 32,238 rows
(b) 228 columns, 32,238 rows
(c) 256 columns, 65,536 rows
(d) 225 columns, 65,536 rows
(e) 128 columns, 65,536 rows.

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41. In MS Excel, which of the following short cut keys are used if the user wants to move between Answer
worksheets? >
(a) SHIFT+ PgUp and SHIFT + PgDn
(b) ALT+ PgUp and ALT+ PgDn
(c) CTRL+ PgUp and CTRL+ PgDn
(d) SHIFT+ Home and SHIFT + End
(e) ALT+ Home and ALT+ End.

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42. In MS-Excel, Which of the following statement(s) is/are false about replication? Answer
>
I. Replication is copying the formula and applying to the range of cells by dragging the mouse and
selecting the cells.
II. Replication saves time.
III. Replication increases redundancy.

(a) Only (I) above
(b) Only (II) above

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43. In a worksheet, the cell (intersection of a row and column) which is currently being used is called as Answer
a/an >
(a) Starting cell
(b) Passive cell
(c) Active cell
(d) Relative cell
(e) Common cell.

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44. Users have many options to format cells in a worksheet. Which of the following tab allows the user to Answer
add color to the selected cells and change the background style? >

(a) Alignment tab
(b) Border tab
(c) Protection tab
(d) Pattern tab
(e) Color tab.

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45. In character formatting, emphasis includes Answer
>
I. Marking the text bold.
II. Underlining the text.
III. Setting the size of the font.
IV. Changing the style of the font.
V. Italicizing the text.

(b) (I), (II) and (III) above
(c) (I), (II) and (IV) above
(d) (I), (II) and (V) above
(e) All (I), (II), (III), (IV) and (V) above.

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46. Which of the following options is not present on the menu bar of MS-Excel workbook? Answer
>
(a) View
(b) Insert
(c) Data
(d) Tools
(e) Table.

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47. Which of the following is not a data type in MS-Excel? Answer
>
(a) Text
(b) Number
(c) Logical
(d) Error
(e) Character.

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48. In MS-Excel, if a formatted number does not fit into a cell, which of the following symbol is Answer
displayed? >
(a) *
(b) #
(c) &
(d) $
(e) @.

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49. In MS-Excel, To consider a number as text, which of the following symbol is used? Answer
>
(a) Quotation
(b) Ampersand
(c) Asterisk
(d) Dollar
(e) Apostrophe.

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50. In MS-Excel, Which of the following is correct with respect to operators and their order of priority? Answer
>
(a) * and /, %, + and - , &, ^
(b) %, ^, * and /, + and - , &
(c) * and /, %, + and -, ^, &
(d) %, &, * and /, ^, + and -

(e) %, + and - , * and /, &.

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51. In MS-Excel, there are different categories of functions like Financial function, Text function, Logical Answer
function etc and there are various functions in each category. Which of the following mentioned pairs >
of are not correct?
Function Category
I. NOW Date & Time
II. FACT Statistical
III. NA Text
IV. SUBSTITUTE Logical
V. AND Text
VI. ISLOGICAL Information Function

(a) (I), (II) and (III) above
(b) (II), (III) and (IV) above
(c) (I), (II), (III) and (V) above
(d) (II), (III), (IV) and (V) above
(e) (I), (II), (III) and (VI) above.

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52. The Solver tool in MS Excel generates three reports viz Answer, Sensitivity and Limits reports. Which Answer
of the following mentioned values is not a part of Answer report? >
(a) Original value
(b) Final value
(c) Value for the input
(d) Implicit value
(e) Values for the constraints.

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53. The effect of Strategic, Tactical and Operational decisions for management, with respect to the time Answer
frame can be represented as >
(a) >3years, 1-3 years, <1year
(b) >1year, >2years, >3years
(c) <1year, <2years, <3years
(d) 1-3 years, >3years, <1year
(e) <1year, 1-3years, >3years.

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54. Meter-reading card given by the electricity department is a Answer
>
(a) Information Document
(b) Action Document
(c) Edit Report
(d) Turnaround Document
(e) Computing Document.

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55. Which of the following provide details of errors that have been detected during processing? Answer
>
(a) Information Document
(b) Action Document
(c) Edit Report
(d) Turnaround Document
(e) Computing Document.

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56. In an organization, which of the following data is/are not processed while taking operational Answer
decisions? >

(a) Attendance
(b) Daily cash flows
(c) Sales figures
(d) Vendor rating
(e) Both (b) and (d) above.

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57. Which of the following explains the main purpose of a personnel record-keeping system? Answer
>
(a) Analyzing range and distribution of employee compensation and comparing it with industry
standards and other economic indicators
(b) Forecasting of the number of personnel required for each job category
(c) Planning and monitoring of induction of new employees
(d) Keeping track of additions, deletions and any other changes to records in the personnel database
(e) Establishing a relationship between the employees.

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58. Data can be processed in a batch mode depending upon Answer
>
I. Market conditions.
II. Volume of transactions.
III. Employee productivity.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Only (II) above

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59. Which of the following is not a characteristic of MIS (Management Information Systems)? Answer
>
(a) Common data flow
(b) Planning element
(c) Common database
(d) Drilling
(e) Flexibility.

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60. Which of the following types of Decision Support System rely on comparative analysis, application of Answer
formula and use of algorithm? >
(a) Status inquiry systems
(b) Data analysis systems
(c) Information analysis systems
(d) Accounting systems
(e) Design systems.

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61. Which of the following is an example of Status inquiry systems (a type of Decision Support Systems)? Answer
>
(a) Cash flow analysis
(b) Funds flow analysis
(c) Railway reservation systems
(d) Sales analysis report
(e) Market analysis report.

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62. In which of the following analytical modeling, target is not fixed and target needs to be arrived at after Answer
taking into consideration the constraints involved in achieving the targets? >
(a) What-if-analysis
(b) Optimization analysis
(c) Goal seek analysis
(d) Sensitivity analysis

(e) Data analysis.

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63. In which of the following analytical modeling, target is fixed and changes are made to the related Answer
variable so that the target is achieved? >
(a) What-if-analysis
(b) Optimization analysis
(c) Goal seek analysis
(d) Sensitivity analysis
(e) Data analysis.

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64. If the finance manager is provided with information on customers who exceeded their credit limits only, Answer
such report is termed as >
(a) Exception report
(b) Periodic scheduled report
(c) Demand report and response
(d) Edit report
(e) Push report.

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65. Which of the following refers to radically changing the design of business processes to improve Answer
performance and efficiency of the organization? >
(a) Business Improvement
(b) Business Process Manufacturing
(c) Business Process Re-engineering
(d) Business Process Production
(e) Enterprise Resource Planning.

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66. What is Artificial intelligence? Answer
>
(a) Putting your intelligence into computer
(b) Programming with your own intelligence
(c) Making a machine intelligent
(d) Playing a game
(e) Putting more memory into computer.

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67. In OLAP, slicing and dicing refer to Answer
>
(a) The process of breaking up data into smaller dimensions to facilitate analysis
(b) The process of representing data in tabular form for analysis
(c) The process of representing data into graphs for analysis
(d) The process of changing the dimension of analysis to suit the analysts’ requirements
(e) The process of changing the dimension of analysis into fixed format for analysis.

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68. Which of the following systems require the use of special sensing devices to measure physical Answer
phenomena such as temperature, pressure etc.? >
(a) Computer-Aided Design
(b) Computer-Aided Manufacturing
(c) Manufacturing Resource Planning
(d) Materials Requirement Planning
(e) Process Control System.

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69. Mr. Sudhakar, a software engineer, working for Vision IT Solutions, was asked by the team leader to Answer
explain the details of the new project using a flowchart. He has drawn separate flow charts for each >
program. So what type of symbol is useful for him in connecting those flow charts?

(a) Parallelogram Shaped Symbol
(b) An On page Connector Symbol
(c) Predefined Process Symbol
(d) An Off Page Connector Symbol
(e) Annotation Shaped Symbol.

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70. Which of the following is not an advantage of a flow chart? Answer
>
(a) It is easier for a programmer to explain the logic of a program to others
(b) It acts as a road map for the programmers to write the concerned program
(c) While executing a program if a bug is detected, it is easy to find out the reason by going through
the logic of a program in the flow chart form
(d) There are no standards determining the amount of detail that should be included in a flow chart
(e) A macro flowchart acts as a system model that can be broken down into detailed parts for study
and further analysis of the system.

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71. Which of the following statements is false regarding Pseudocode? Answer
>
(a) Converting a pseudocode to a programming language is much easier when compared to
converting a flowchart or a decision table
(b) Less time and effort are required to write a pseudocode than for drawing a flowchart
(c) It is easier to modify the pseudocode of a program logic when program modifications are
necessary
(d) There are no standard rules to follow while using a pseudocode
(e) For a beginner, it is easier to follow the logic of a pseudocode, as compared to flow chart.

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72. Which of the following is the correct order of program development lifecycle? Answer
>
(a) Defining the problem, formalizing the solution, coding, designing, testing and debugging,
maintaining the program
(b) Defining the problem, coding, designing, testing and debugging, formalizing the solution,
(c) Defining the problem, formalizing the solution, designing, coding, testing and debugging,
(d) Defining the problem, designing, coding, testing and debugging, formalizing the solution,
(e) Defining the problem, coding, testing and debugging, formalizing the solution, designing,
maintaining the program.

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73. Which of the following charts are useful for Mr.Sudhakar, if he wants to compare the population of Answer
Hyderabad with the population of Andhra Pradesh? >
(a) Column charts
(b) Bar charts
(c) Line charts
(d) Pie charts
(e) Gantt charts.

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74. In programming language, ‘Switch’ statement is used to Answer
>
(a) Transfer control on the basis of certain conditions
(b) Check the conditions within another condition
(c) Specify operations based on certain conditions
(d) Check multiple values of variables
(e) Execute the loop at least once.

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75. Which of the following is the most successful Rapid Application Development tool for Microsoft Answer
Windows application? >

(a) VB
(b) JAVA
(c) C++
(d) C
(e) ADA.

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76. Which of the following is/are example(s) of fourth generation languages? Answer
>
(a) FOCUS
(b) Prolog
(c) NATURAL
(d) Both (a) and (b) above
(e) Both (a) and (c) above.

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77. Which of the following statement(s) is/are false regarding application generators? Answer
I. Application generators are higher level languages designed to facilitate development of a >
complete application.
II. These languages are usually built around database management systems.
III. Application generators are difficult to use than other high-level programming languages such as
C++.
IV. Application generators usually increase the time required for programming and testing.
(a) Only (III) above
(b) Only (IV) above
(d) Both (II) and (IV) above
(e) Both (III) and (IV) above.

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78. In Java, which of the following provides a layer of abstraction between the compiled program and the Answer
underlying hardware platform and operating system? >
(a) Compiler
(b) Interpreter
(c) Class loader
(d) JVM
(e) Assembler.

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79. Which of the following refers to the process by which one object acquires the general properties such Answer
as the conditions and actions of other objects? >
(a) Encapsulation
(b) Abstraction
(c) Polymorphism
(d) Inheritance
(e) Class.

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80. In object-oriented programming, the process of binding data and functions in a single unit is called Answer
>
(a) Encapsulation
(b) Abstraction
(c) Polymorphism
(d) Inheritance
(e) Exception-handling.

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81. In a flow chart, which of the following symbol represents programming logic that is defined Answer
elsewhere? >

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
.

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82. Which of the following computers was the first electronic computer developed at the Moore School of Answer
engineering? >
(a) ENIAC
(b) UNIVAC
(c) EDVAC
(d) EDSAC
(e) ENAIC.

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83 The Overall Design of the database is called as Answer
>
(a) Instance
(b) Schema
(c) View
(d) Model
(e) Design.

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84. Which of the following refers to the actual number of associated instances for each of the two entities? Answer
>
(a) Instance
(b) Connectivity
(c) Schema
(d) Entity
(e) Cardinality.

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85. Which of the following term in a Relational model is known as Entity instance in E-R model? Answer
>
(a) Key
(b) Entity
(c) Tuple
(d) Table
(e) Data.

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86. Which of the following statement(s) is/are false about primary key? Answer
>
I. All primary key entries are unique.
II. The primary key may be null.
III. The primary key is not required for all tables.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Only (II) above
(d) Both (I) and (III) above

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87. Answer
Customer ID Customer Salesperson Zone >
653 James Sally South
256 Jewel Tom North
152 Harry Sally South
569 Helen Jack West
972 Scott Howard East
Which of the following statement(s) is/ are correct based on the above relation?
I. It is in First Normal Form.
II. It is not in Third Normal Form.
III. There is a partial dependency in the above relation.
(a) Only (I) above

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88. A functional dependency between two or more non-key attributes is called Answer
>
(a) Partial functional dependency
(b) Partial non-key dependency
(c) Transitive dependency
(d) Partial transitive dependency
(e) Trivial dependency.

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89. What does the following SQL statement do? Answer
>
Select salesperson from salesdetails where state = ‘RJ’
(a) Selects all the fields from the salesdetails table for each row with a state ‘RJ’
(b) Selects the salesperson field from the salesdetails table for each row with a state ‘RJ’
(c) Selects fields with a salesdetails from the salesdetails table
(d) Selects all the fields from the salesdetails table for each row with a state labeled quot;salesdetailsquot;
(e) Counts all records and displays the value.

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90. The relationship between DEPARTMENT and EMPLOYEE is a Answer
>
(a) One-to-one relationship
(b) One-to-many relationship
(c) Many-to-many relationship
(d) Many-to-one relationship
(e) Symmetric relationship.

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91. The first network model developed by GE in the mid-1960s was called Answer
>
(a) Integrated Data Store (IDS)
(b) Integrated Data View (IDV)
(c) Integrated Information Store (IIS)
(d) Integrated Data Content (IDC)
(e) Integrated Data Machine (IDM).

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92. Which of the following model(s) comes under physical Data model? Answer
>
I. Entity-relationship model.
II. Unifying model.
III. Frame memory model.

(a) Only (I) above

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93. Which of the file organization is used when rapid access is required and fixed length records are used? Answer
>
(a) Pile File Organization
(b) Sequential File Organization
(c) Index Sequential File Organization
(d) Indexed File Organization
(e) Hashed File Organization.

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94. In which of the file organization exhaustive search is required to access the records? Answer
>
(a) Pile File Organization
(b) Sequential File Organization
(c) Index Sequential File Organization
(d) Indexed File Organization
(e) Hashed File Organization.

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95. Which of the following refers to the storage of data in such a way that it is not affected by modification Answer
in data structure or changes in the application program? >
(a) Data Integrity
(b) Data Independence
(c) Data Redundancy
(d) Data Inconsistency
(e) Data Security.

<
96. Vishal Datamind, a business organization maintaining a lot of “operational data” like Product data, Answer
Account data, Payroll data for their customers. One day due to hardware problems the total data in the >
database is lost. So who is responsible for back up and recovery of a database?
(a) Application programmers
(b) End users
(c) System analyst
(d) Database administrators
(e) Network administrators.

<
97. In Database Management System, an example of logical level abstraction is/are Answer
>
I. Machine level programming.
II. Programming logic.
III. Application used by the end users.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Only (II) above

<
98. Suppose if we want to keep extra information about a telephone such as its location, or its type (like Answer
mobile, video-phone or who all shares the telephone) we have to model the telephone as a >
(a) Entity
(b) Attribute
(c) Instance

(d) Schema
(e) Constraint.

<
99. The structure of the hierarchical database is Answer
>
(a) A tree
(b) A graph
(c) A table
(d) A grid
(e) A list.

<
100.Which of the following applications of object-oriented data model stores data required by software Answer
developers pertaining to source code, dependencies among software modules , definitions and uses of >
variables?
(a) Computer Aided Design Database
(b) Computer-Aided Software Engineering Database
(c) Office Information System
(d) Multimedia Database
(e) Hypertext Database.

Suggested Answers
Information Technology and Systems– I (MB231): July 2007
1. Answer : (b) < TOP >
Reason : The technology used in the first generation computers is Vacuum tubes. So option (b) is
the answer.
2. Answer : (d) < TOP >
Reason : The differences between RISC and CISC are RISC microprocessors execute the
instructions very fast and RISC chips are cheaper to design and produce compared to
CISC chips. The third option is false because RISC uses less complex set of instructions
when compared to CISC architecture So option (d) is the answer.
Reason: CRAY3, CRAYXMP, PARAM 9000, PARAM 10000 are the examples of Super
computers. So option (b) is the answer.
4. Answer : (e) < TOP >

Reason : Fifth generation computers are based on artificial intelligence and possess voice
recognition capabilities. So option (e) is the answer.
Reason : To improve the secondary cache performance, microprocessors are provided in plastic
modules that contain a special type of secondary cache is called backside cache. So option
(b) is the answer.
Reason : Memory Buffer Register holds data on its way to and from memory. So option (b) is the
answer.
7. Answer : (a) < TOP >
Reason : All computers performs four basic operations called the IPOS cycle. The internal
architectural design of computers may differ from one system to another. But, the basic
organization remains the same for all computer systems. Input devices provide a computer
with data that are transformed into binary codes.
(a) This transaction is done by input interfaces
(b) Not relevant
(c) Output interfaces accomplish the task of converting the binary code, which is
produced by the computer, into human readable form
(d) Not relevant
(e) Not relevant.
So option (a) is answer.
Reason : In 1842, Charles Babbage invented the analytical engine that was intended to be
completely automatic. John Napier invented the logarithm. William Oughtred invented
rectibinear and Circula slide rules. Pascal invented mechanical adding machine. Leibniz
invented a device which can multiply,divide and find square root. So option (d) is answer.
Reason : Herman Hollerith Invented Punch Cards in 1890 and with this invention of Punch Cards,
the calculating machines became fully automatic. Charles Babbage invented analytical
engine, John Napier invented logarithm, Pascal invented mechanical adding machine and
Leibniz invented a device which can multiply, divide and find square root. So option (b) is
answer.
Reason : Cache memory>RAM>Hard disk>CD-ROM. The access speed for cache is very fast, the
access speed for RAM is fast, the access speed for hard disk is medium, and the access
speed for CD-ROM is slow. So option (e) is correct answer.
11. < TOP >
Answer : (b)

Reason : 1 Giga byte is equal to one billion bytes. So option (b) is answer.
Reason : In virtual memory, program instructions and data are divided into units of fixed size
called pages. So option (a) is the answer.
Reason : If the memory is full, the operating system starts storing copies of pages in a hard disk file
called Swap file. So option (b) is the answer.
Reason : Data is recoded on the disk in concentric circular bands called tracks. So option (d) is the
answer.
Reason : Controlling input/output processes involves tasks associated with input and output
devices.
(a) Device drivers contain specific information about a particular brand and model.
(b) Interrupts are the signals that inform the operating system that some activity has
taken place.
(c) In virtual memory, program, instructions and data are divided into units of fixed
size, called pages.
(d) Not relevant
(e) Not relevant.
So option (b) is answer.
Reason : Virtual memory enables users to work with more memory that what is installed on the
computer’s motherboard. So option (b) is answer.
Reason : The most important feature that Netware 4.1 provides is Netware directory services
which supports a network of servers where users can log in once and access the resources
of any server depending on their access rights. Netware 5.1 is the ability to convert any
type of server into web server. Novell has added new features in Netware 6.5 like
Centralized web management, Virtual office application. Hence option (e) is answer.
18. < TOP >
Answer : (d)
Reason : The most important feature added in Vista was Windows AERO. AERO is a visual style
that stands for Authentic, Energetic, Reflective and Open. So option (d) is answer.
19. Answer : (c) < TOP >
Reason : UNIX Operating System is widely used because:
I. It provides easy portability across systems.
III. It is multi-user and multi-tasking Operating System.
So option (c) is answer.
Reason : ‘MSDOS.SYS’ file handles file and memory management. So option (d) is answer.
Reason : In UNIX ‘ssh nd’ command is used to login securely to remote node. So option (b) is
answer.
Reason : The user interface in Mac OS X is called ‘Aqua’. So option (c) is answer.

Reason : In Windows XP Operating System, XP stands for Experience. So option (b) is answer.
24. < TOP >
Answer : (a)
Reason : Objective information is also known as facts and Subjective information is also known as
opinions and Objective information is unique and true in nature. So option (a) is answer.

25. < TOP >
Answer : (c)
Reason : Primary information is usually collected from internal sources. Secondary information is
usually collected from external sources like the television, radio and Internet. Secondary
information is less reliable and not always accurate. Secondary information is easier and
cheaper to collect. So option (c) is answer.
26. < TOP >
Answer : (d)
Reason : Qualitative information refers to information gathered through personal, direct and open-
ended methods. Methods like personal interviews, observation, focus groups, case studies,
etc., are used to gather such information. The quality of the information is enhanced by
adding individual experiences. For instance, user interviews can be taken to understand
how user-friendly particular software is. So option (d) is answer.
27. < TOP >
Answer : (b)
Reason : Aggregated information provides details about all entities in a group where as Detailed
information provides information of only a particular entity in a group. So option (b) is
answer.
Reason : A modem is a device that converts digital signals from input/output devices into
appropriate frequencies at a transmission terminal and converts them back into digital
signals at a recurring terminal. A multiplexer merges the transmissions of several
terminals at one end of a communications channel, while a similar unit separates the
individual transmissions at the receiving end. A router interconnects networks based on
different rules or protocols, so that the message can be routed to its destination. Hubs
provide automatic switching among connections called ports for shared access to a
network resource. Gateways interconnect the networks that use different communication
architectures. So option (a) is the answer.
29. < TOP >
Answer : (c)
Reason : Impartiality refers to the information which is free from errors and bias. So option (c) is
answer.
30. < TOP >
Answer : (c)
Reason : Errors are not always deliberate and therefore certain measures can be taken to minimize
them. Some of the measures to overcome errors are:
• internal controls
• internal audit and external audit
• additional parameters that state the level of confidence with regard to the accuracy
of information
• instructions pertaining to measurement and processing of information
The first two measures can be used to reduce the uncertainty of information while the last
two ascertain the credibility of the information.
31. < TOP >
Answer : (d)
Reason : Concept is basically a feature or a characteristic that is shared among a group of items,
ideas or entities. So option (d) is answer.
Reason : The World Wide Web is a system of Internet servers that support specially formatted
documents. Documents are formatted in a script called Hyper Text Markup Language
(HTML) that supports links to other documents, as well as graphics, audio and video files.
FTP is a protocol is used for transferring files over the internet. HTML is not a protocol.
Reason : IMAP is an acronym for Internet Message Access Protocol. It is like a remote file server
that allows users to retain mail on the server and organize them in folders. So option (a) is

answer.
Reason : Internet paging runs on the background of the user’s computer screen, allowing him or
her to know when friends or colleagues (registered ones) are online. It is also known as
buddy list software. ICQ is a popular Internet paging program. ICQ stands for ‘I Seek
You’. So option (b) is answer.
Reason : Data conferencing is an interactive way of sharing information among users at different
locations over a network of computers. Application sharing and application viewing are
two terms used in data conferencing. Application sharing is similar to remote control
software. It facilitates sharing of the same computer screen by all participants. So option
(e) is answer.
Reason : Project management groupware helps project teams work together and keep track of
deadlines. Microsoft Project, Lotus Organizer and CA-Super Project are examples of
project management groupware. These tools not only produce project schedules and
program reports, but also send automatic reminders of due dates for project tasks.
Netscape Collabra, Lotus notes are groupware application used for discussion forums. So
option (b) is answer.
Reason : Usenet is a collection of user-submitted notes or messages on various subjects that are
posted to servers on a world wide network.
Option (a) is incorrect. Internet Paging, also known as “Buddy List” software, runs on
the background of the user's computer, letting him/her know when his friends or
coworkers (only those who are registered) are online. So, it is not applicable here.
Option (b) is incorrect. Internet Fax is the mechanism of sending faxes through computers
connected over the Internet. So, it is not applicable here.
Option (c) is incorrect. Internet Telephony is the mechanism of carrying out telephonic
conversations over the Internet. So, it is not applicable here.
Option (d) is incorrect. Internet Relay Chat is an Internet service that enables a user to
join chat groups, called channels, and get into real-time text-based conversations. So, it is
not applicable here.
Hence, from above discussion, we can infer that option (e) is correct.
So option (e) is answer.
Reason : Vertical applications are those that cater to the needs of a particular business function.
They are used to automate the operations of a particular business function. Vertical
applications cater only to the specific function in an organization and therefore, special
programmers or operators are required to carry out these applications. Examples of
vertical applications are accounting software and bill generation software. Horizontal
applications are general-purpose programs that can be used for writing, carrying out
numerical calculations, and data storage. Personal productivity software is a popular
horizontal application that includes word processing, spreadsheets, and special programs
for storing addresses, preparing schedules, etc.
So option (d) is answer.
Reason : Word wrapping enables the word processing application software to begin a new line and
automatically move words to the next line for justification purposes.
So, from above discussion, we can infer that option (a) is correct.
Options (b), (c), (d) and (e) are all incorrect as they are not the correct terminologies. So
option (a) is the answer.
Reason : In MS Excel, each worksheet has 256 columns, 65,536 rows. So option ( c) is answer.
41. < TOP >
Answer : (c)

Reason : Users may work on more than one sheet simultaneously. A user can click on the sheet tab
to switch from one sheet to another. Users can also use CTRL+PgUp and CTRL+PgDn to
move between worksheets. So option (c) is answer.
Reason : Replication is copying the formula and applying to the range of cells by dragging the
mouse and selecting the cells. Replication saves time. But Replication eliminates
redundancy.
So option (c) is the answer.
Reason : In a worksheet, the cell (intersection of a row and column) currently being used is called
Active cell. So option (c) is the answer.
Reason : Users have many options to format cells in a worksheet. Pattern tab allows the user to
add color to the selected cells and change the background style. So option (d) is answer.
45. < TOP >
Answer : (d)
Reason : Character formatting emphasis includes Marking the text bold, Underlining the text,
Italicizing the text. So option ( d) is answer.
46. < TOP >
Answer : (e)
Reason : View, Insert, Data, Tools are options present in MS-Exel. Table option is not present on
the menu bar. So option ( e) is answer.
Reason : Character is not a data type in MS-Excel. So option (e) is answer.
Reason : # symbol is displayed in MS-Excel, if a formatted number does not fit into a cell. So
option (b) is answer.

Reason : In MS-Excel, To consider a number as text, Apostrophe symbol is used. So option (e) is
answer.
Reason : %, ^, * and /, + and -, & is the correct order of operator precedence. So option ( b) is
answer.
Reason : In the given sequence only pair (I) and (VI) are correct. Remaining all are incorrect.
I. NOW is a date and time function.
II. FACT is not statistical function, it is infact a mathematical and trigonometric
function.
III. NA is not Text function, it is infact a Information function.
IV. SUBSTITUTE is not Logical function, it is Text function
V. AND is not Text function , it is Logical function
VI. ISLOGICAL is a Information Function.
Reason : Implicit value is not part of Answer report. It is a part of sensitivity report. So option (d)
is answer.
Reason : The effect of decisions for Strategic, Tactical and Operational, with respect to the time
frame, can be represented as >3years, 1-3 years, <1year. So option (a) is the answer.

Reason : (a) Information documents serve as confirmation or proof to their recipients that certain
transactions have occurred.

(b) Action documents are documents that cause the recipients to initiate some action.
(c) Edit reports provide details of errors that have been detected during processing.
Missing data, invalid account numbers, etc. are presented in edit reports.
(d) These documents are designed first to initiate some action and then are returned for
further processing so as to complete the transaction.
Meter-reading card given by the electricity department is a Turnaround Document. This
card is first issued by the electricity department with the customer details. The new
reading is entered on the document when the meter is inspected by a person belonging to
the department. This card is again given to the electricity billing department for the
purpose of calculation of the electricity bill.
(e) Not relevant.
From above discussion, we can say option (d) is answer.

Reason : (a) Information documents serve as confirmation or proof to their recipients that certain
transactions have occurred.
(b) Action documents are documents that cause the recipients to initiate some action.
(c) Edit reports provide details of errors that have been detected during processing.
Missing data, invalid account numbers, etc. are presented in edit reports.
(d) These documents are designed first to initiate some action and then are returned for
further processing so as to complete the transaction.
(e) Not relevant.
Reason : Operational decisions involve large-scale processing of internal data like attendance, daily
cash flows, sales figures, etc. Accuracy and speed are two important aspects considered
while making operational decisions. Data pertaining to market competition would be
processed for taking strategic decisions. Vendor rating is an example of decisions taken at
the tactical level. So option (d) is answer.
Reason : A personnel record-keeping system keeps track of additions, deletions and other changes
to records in the personnel database. Remaining all options are not relevant. So option (d)
is answer.
Reason : In batch processing, the information that is gathered is stored but is not processed
instantly. This type of transaction processing involves accumulation of transactions until a
certain set of criteria are satisfied – such as time period (say monthly, quarterly) or
quantity (based on the volume of transactions). So option (b) is an answer.
Reason : Drilling is not a characteristic of MIS. Remaining all others are characteristics of MIS
(Management Information Systems). So option (d) is the answer.
Reason : Data analysis systems, a type of DSS (Decision Support Systems) are developed using
simple data processing tools and business rules. These systems rely on comparative
analysis, application of formula and use of algorithm. So option (b) is the answer.
Reason : Example of Status inquiry systems (a type of Decision Support Systems) is Railway
reservation systems. So option (c) is the answer.
Reason : (a)End users can make use of what-if analysis to make changes in variable or relationship
amongst variables and observe the changes. What-if analysis is used for analyzing the
various possibilities and deriving an appropriate strategy for each situation.

(d) Sensitivity analysis can be considered as a type of what-if-analysis in which the effect
of repeated change in a single variable is examined. This type of analysis is useful when
the user is not sure about the value of a key variable.
(c) Goal seek analysis is the reverse of what-if-analysis. In goal-seek analysis, the target is
fixed and changes are made to the related variable so that the target is achieved.
(b) Optimization analysis is complex extension of goal seek analysis. In optimization
analysis, the target is not fixed. Rather, the target needs to be arrived at after taking into
consideration the constraints involved in achieving the targets. In this analysis, one or
more variables are changed after taking into account the constraints until the best
alternative is found.
(e) Incorrect Answer.
So option (b) is the correct answer.
Reason : (a)End users can make use of what-if analysis to make changes in variable or relationship
amongst variables and observe the changes. What-if analysis is used for analyzing the
various possibilities and deriving an appropriate strategy for each situation.
(d)Sensitivity analysis can be considered as a type of what-if-analysis in which the effect
of repeated change in a single variable is examined. This type of analysis is useful when
the user is not sure about the value of a key variable.
(c)Goal seek analysis is the reverse of what-if-analysis. In goal-seek analysis, the target is
fixed and changes are made to the related variable so that the target is achieved.
(b) Optimization analysis is a complex extension of goal-seek analysis. In optimization
analysis, the target is not fixed. Rather, the target needs to be arrived at after taking into
consideration the constraints involved in achieving the targets. In this analysis, one or
more variables are changed after taking into account the constraints until the best
alternative is found.
So option (c) is the correct answer.
Reason : Managers and other decision makers use MIS to request information at their networked
workstation that supports their decision-making activities. This information takes the form
of periodic, exception, and demand reports and immediate responses to enquiries.
Exception reports are generated only in exceptional situations.
(b) This is the traditional form of providing information to the managers that uses a pre
specified format designed to provide managers with information on a regular basis.
(c) Here, information is available whenever a manager demands it.
(d) Edit report is not the report used by a finance manager who is provided with
information on customers who exceeded their credit limits only.
(e) Push report is not the report used by a finance manager who is provided with
information on customers who exceeded their credit limits only.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Reason : The process of radically changing the design of business process to improve performance
and efficiency is called Business Process Re-engineering. So option (c) is answer.
Reason : AI deals with the process of creating such machines which can learn and adapt to
intelligent behaviors that are a characteristic of human beings. It is associated with the
tasks of making machines and programs that are intelligent and making use of these
machines to understand human intelligence. So option (c) is answer.

Reason : In OLAP, Slicing and dicing refer to The process of changing the dimension of analysis
to suit the analyst requirements. So option (d) is answer.
Reason : Process Control System is a computer system that controls an ongoing physical
manufacturing process. Such a system requires the use of special sensing devices to
measure physical phenomena such as temperature, pressure etc.

Option (a) is incorrect. Computer Aided Design (CAD) is a set of specialized software and
hardware that is used to design products directly on computer terminals. So, it is not
applicable here.
Option (b) is incorrect. Computer Aided Manufacturing (CAM) is a specialized computer
system, which translates the CAD information into instructions for automated machines,
so that they perform the necessary production operations. So, it is not applicable here.
Option (c) is incorrect. Manufacturing Resource Planning (MRP II) is an integrated
information system that shares data among and synchronizes the activities of production
and the other functional areas of the business like marketing, finance etc. So, it is not
applicable here.
Option (d) is incorrect. Materials Requirement Planning (MRP) enables the
implementation of the Master Production Schedule by showing time-phased requirements
for releasing and receiving of materials. So, it is not applicable here.
Hence, from above discussion, we can infer that option (e) is correct.
So option (e) is answer.
Reason : An On Page Connector in a flowchart is used to connect different parts of the program
flow charts. So option (b) is the answer.
Reason : All the alternatives except (d) are the advantages of using a flow chart. There are no
standards determining the amount of detail that should be included in a flow chart. So
option (d) is answer.
Reason : Except (e) all other statements are true. Converting a pseudocode to a programming
language is much easier when compared to converting a flow chart or a decision table.
Less time and effort are required to write a pseudocode than for drawing a flow chart. It is
easier to modify the pseudocode of program logic when program modifications are
necessary. There are no standard rules to follow while using a pseudocode. For a beginner,
it is difficult to follow the logic of or write a pseudocode, as compared to flow chart. So
option (e) is the answer.

Reason : Following is the correct order of program development lifecycle.
(i) Defining the problem.
(ii) Designing the program.
(iii) Coding the program.
(iv) Testing and debugging the program.
(v) Formalizing the solution.
(vi) Maintaining the program.
Reason : Pie charts are used to compare the parts of a whole. So pie charts are useful for
Mr.Sudhakar, if he wants to compare the population of Hyderabad with the population of
Andhra Pradesh. So option (d) is correct answer.
Reason : ‘Switch’ statement are used to check for multiple values of variables.
For loop is used to perform a task a specific number of times on the basis of the condition
‘Nested If’ statements are used to check the conditions within another condition.
‘If’ statements are used to transfer control on the basis of certain conditions.
Reason : VB is the most successful Rapid Application Development tool (RAD) for Microsoft
Windows application. So option (a) is answer.

Reason : FOCUS, NATURAL are fourth generation languages. Prolog is a fifth generation

language. So option (e) is answer.
Reason : An application generator is a type of language designed to facilitate development of a
complete application. It includes defining input transactions, editing transactions, creating
a database, updating files, generating reports and processing queries. They drastically
reduce the time required for programming and testing. Application generators are easy to
use than other high-level programming languages such as C++. So option ( e) is answer.
Reason : JVM (Java Virtual machine) provides a layer of abstraction between the compiled
program and the underlying hardware platform and operating system. Remaining all are
not relevant. So option (d) is answer.
Reason : Inheritance refers to the process by which one object acquires the general properties such
as the conditions and actions of other objects.
(e) Class constitutes a set of objects that share a common structure and behavior.
(b) Abstraction refers to the process of hiding the complexity and internal functionality of
objects.
(a) Encapsulation binds together the code and the data it manipulates.
(c) Polymorphism is the property of a function by which it can exhibit different behaviors
based on different input values.
Reason : In object-oriented programming, the process of binding data and functions in a single unit
is called Encapsulation. So option (a) is answer.

Reason : (b) represents the addition of descriptive Comments or explanatory notes as
clarification.

(d) represents an entry to or exit from another part of the program flow
chart.

(c) represents programming logic that is defined else where.

(e) represents entry to exit from the page.

(a) represents beginning and ending points of a program.
So option ( c) is answer.
Reason : ‘ENIAC’ (Electronic Numerical Integrator and Calculator) was the first electronic
computer developed at the Moore School of Engineering. So option (a) is the answer.
Reason : The Overall Design of the database is called as Schema which includes physical schema,
logical schema and subschemas. So option (b) is the answer.
Reason : Cardinality refers to the actual number of associated instances for each of the two
entities.
So option (e) is the answer.
Reason : Tuple in Relational model is also known as Entity instance in E-R model . So option (c)

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